Fierz Identity Question: Understanding the Transformation and Matrices

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The discussion centers on the Fierz identities in quantum field theory, specifically the transformation involving the matrices defined as S=1, V=γμ, T=σμν, A=γμγ5, and P=γ5. The identity presented is $(\Gamma_i)_{\alpha\beta}(\Gamma_i)_{\gamma\xi}=\sum_j F_{ij}(\Gamma_j)_{\alpha\xi}(\Gamma_j)_{\gamma\beta}$, with the matrix F defined as a specific 5x5 matrix. The confusion arises regarding the sign in the Fierz transformation, where the participants clarify that the anticommutation of the fermionic fields (ψ's) introduces an additional minus sign when switching fields.

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Einj
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Hi everyone, I have a doubt on Fierz identities. If we define the following quantities: S=1,\; V=\gamma_\mu,\; T=\sigma_{\mu\nu},\; A=\gamma_\mu\gamma_5,\;P=\gamma_5, then we have the identity:

$$
(\Gamma_i)_{\alpha\beta}(\Gamma_i)_{\gamma\xi}=\sum_j F_{ij}(\Gamma_j)_{\alpha\xi}(\Gamma_j)_{\gamma\beta},
$$
where \Gamma_i are the matrices define before. Moreover:
$$
F_{ij}=\frac{1}{8}\left(\begin{array}{ccccc}
2 & 2 & 1 & -2 & -2 \\
8&-4&0&-4&-8 \\
24&0&-4&0&24 \\
-8&-4&0&-4&8 \\
2&-2&1&2&2
\end{array}\right)
$$
Therefore, if we take the VV+AA combination it turns out that VV+AA=-VV-AA with exchanged indices.

However I usually read the Fierz transformation to be:
$$
(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_2)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_4)=(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_4)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_2).
$$

Without any minus sign. Does anyone knows why?
 
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Einj said:
Hi everyone, I have a doubt on Fierz identities. If we define the following quantities: S=1,\; V=\gamma_\mu,\; T=\sigma_{\mu\nu},\; A=\gamma_\mu\gamma_5,\;P=\gamma_5, then we have the identity:

$$
(\Gamma_i)_{\alpha\beta}(\Gamma_i)_{\gamma\xi}=\sum_j F_{ij}(\Gamma_j)_{\alpha\xi}(\Gamma_j)_{\gamma\beta},
$$
where \Gamma_i are the matrices define before. Moreover:
$$
F_{ij}=\frac{1}{8}\left(\begin{array}{ccccc}
2 & 2 & 1 & -2 & -2 \\
8&-4&0&-4&-8 \\
24&0&-4&0&24 \\
-8&-4&0&-4&8 \\
2&-2&1&2&2
\end{array}\right)
$$
Therefore, if we take the VV+AA combination it turns out that VV+AA=-VV-AA with exchanged indices.
However I usually read the Fierz transformation to be:
$$
(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_2)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_4)=(\psi_1\Gamma P_L\psi_4)(\psi_3\Gamma P_L\psi_2).
$$
Without any minus sign. Does anyone knows why?
Because the ψ's anticommute? I think it matters whether you just give the relation between matrices, as Wikipedia does, or include the ψ's. Both of these references give the table for Fij including the ψ's, with the opposite sign.
http://hep-www.px.tsukuba.ac.jp/~yuji/mdoc/fierzTrans.pdf
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/9783527648887.app5/pdf
 
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I think you are right. Once we write the identity for the matrices then we need to switch the two field and this should give an extra minus sign.
 

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