Finding Potential of Wave Function: Solving Liboff's Exercise

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The discussion focuses on solving Liboff's exercise regarding a wavefunction and determining the potential field V(x) in which a particle moves. The wavefunction is given as ψ(x, t) = A exp[i(ax - bt)], leading to the calculation of the potential field as V(x) = ℏ(b - ℏa²/2m). Participants clarify the relationship between momentum and energy, concluding that for a free particle, momentum p = ℏa and energy E = ℏb. The conversation emphasizes the correct application of operator relations to derive observables and highlights the distinction between potential energy and kinetic energy in the context of the total energy. Overall, the thread provides insights into quantum mechanics calculations and the interpretation of wavefunctions.
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This one is from Liboff(p6.8)

Given the wavefunction:
\psi(x, t) = A exp[i(ax - bt)]
What is the Potential field V(x) in which the particle is moving?
If the momentum of the particle is measured, what value is found(in terms of a & b)?
If the energy is measured, what value is found?

My Work:

\psi(x, t) = A exp[i(ax - bt)]
I took the partial derivatives wrt to t and x:
\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -(ib)\psi

\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2} = -a^2\psi

Time dependent Schrodinger's equation is:
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2} + V(x)\psi

Substituting the above values in this equation:

\hbar b \psi = \frac{\hbar^2 a^2}{2m}\psi + V(x)\psi

Dividing throughout by \psi and rearranging, I get the potential field as:
V(x) = \hbar\left(b - \frac{\hbar a^2}{2m}\right)

Am I going right? Before I can proceed furthur...
 
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Reshma said:
Time independent Schrodinger's equation is:
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2} + V(x)\psi



The calculation seems correct, though.
 
neutrino said:
The calculation seems correct, though.

Sorry, I realized my mistake but I got disconnected before I could correct it. I've corrected it now. :biggrin:
 
Now I have to get an expression for the momentum.
p = \hbar k
V(x) = {1\over 2}kx^2

Equating this to the other expression of V(x) would mean an x2 term in the momentum expression. I am confused over this. :frown:
k = {{2\hbar}\over x^2} \left(b - \frac{\hbar a^2}{2m}\right)
 
Didn't you just find out that V(x) is a constant potential? Look at your answer for V(x) above. Why are you assuming that V(x) should now be a harmonic potential?

Given a wavefunction, how do you calculate the values of observables?
 
Gokul43201 said:
Didn't you just find out that V(x) is a constant potential? Look at your answer for V(x) above. Why are you assuming that V(x) should now be a harmonic potential?

Given a wavefunction, how do you calculate the values of observables?

Use the operator relation?
\hat p = -i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial x}

\hat H = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{\partial^2 }{\partial x^2}
 
Reshma said:
Now I have to get an expression for the momentum.
p = \hbar k
V(x) = {1\over 2}kx^2

Where does the above harmonic V(x) come from ?
Your original way of working is correct. I didn't check all the algebra though.

marlon
 
marlon said:
Where does the above harmonic V(x) come from ?
Your original way of working is correct. I didn't check all the algebra though.

marlon

Sorry! I made an erroneous assumption. :blushing: I think using the operator relation is the correct technique. Am I right?
 
Reshma said:
Sorry! I made an erroneous assumption. :blushing: I think using the operator relation is the correct technique. Am I right?

yes

marlon
 
  • #10
Reshma said:
Use the operator relation?
\hat p = -i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial x}
This is correct.

\hat H = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{\partial^2 }{\partial x^2}
This isn't right. The RHS is simply the kinetic energy, not the total energy.
 
  • #11
For the first part of working out the potential, you have to employ the TDSE, this is true.

However, you should recognise that this is the wavefunction for a free particle, in the form:

[psi] = Aexp[i(kx - wt)], where A = normalisation factor, p=[hbar]k, E = [hbar]w.

Hence in this example, p = [hbar]a, E = [hbar]b.

You may use the operator relations p[hat] = -i[hbar]d/dx, and H[hat] = i[hbar]d/dt to show this.

Notice also how V = [hbar]w - ([hbar]k)2/2m = [hbar]w - p2/2m
So V = E - KE
i.e. Potential Energy = Total Energy - Kinetic Energy

Which agrees with Total Energy = Kinetic Energy + Potential Energy
 
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  • #12
Thanks for the responses Gokul, Marlon and Worzo! Things are making better sense now. :smile:
 
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