Finding the absolute value (modulus) and solving equation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the absolute value of a complex expression involving multiple complex numbers. The absolute value of a complex number is determined using the formula sqrt(a^2 + b^2), representing the hypotenuse in the Argand diagram. Participants confirm that the calculations are correct, emphasizing the property |a*b| = |a|*|b|. There is some uncertainty about the treatment of the imaginary unit 'i' in the calculations, but it is clarified that |i| = 1. The conversation concludes with the suggestion that further simplification is unnecessary.
infiniteking1
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1. | (2-i)(3+2i)(-5-6i)(-7+3i) / (-4+i) |



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3. I am pretty sure I am not computing it right but this is what i come up with.

square root of 5* square root of 13* square root of 61* square root of 58 / square root of 17.
 
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I'm really sure you are computing it right. |a*b|=|a|*|b|, yes? Why do you think it's not right?
 
I'm not sure if the value of i by itself is 1 or whether or not to include it when I am finding the square root.
 
infiniteking1 said:
I'm not sure if the value of i by itself is 1 or whether or not to include it when I am finding the square root.

The absolute value of a+bi where a and b are both real is sqrt(a^2+b^2). It's the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle with real side a and imaginary perpendicular side b in the Argand diagram. It's the pythagorean theorem. |1|=1 and |i|=1. You are doing everything correctly. Trust me.
 
Ok, thanks for the help. Making sure but there's nothing more to do to this problem, correct?
 
infiniteking1 said:
Ok, thanks for the help. Making sure but there's nothing more to do to this problem, correct?

Not really. You could collect the square roots, or you could write it as an approximate decimal. But I don't see any reason to do that.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Essentially I just have this problem that I'm stuck on, on a sheet about complex numbers: Show that, for ##|r|<1,## $$1+r\cos(x)+r^2\cos(2x)+r^3\cos(3x)...=\frac{1-r\cos(x)}{1-2r\cos(x)+r^2}$$ My first thought was to express it as a geometric series, where the real part of the sum of the series would be the series you see above: $$1+re^{ix}+r^2e^{2ix}+r^3e^{3ix}...$$ The sum of this series is just: $$\frac{(re^{ix})^n-1}{re^{ix} - 1}$$ I'm having some trouble trying to figure out what to...
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