Finding the Gradient of ln(tan2x+secx) Using Substitution | Homework Help

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Homework Statement



By using cos and sin subs for tan and sec, find the gradient of:

ln(tan2x+secx)

Homework Equations



tanx=sinx/cosx

secx=1/cosx

The Attempt at a Solution



Substituting

[tex]y=ln(\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx})[/tex]

Using the chain rule let:

[tex]z= \frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx}[/tex]


[tex]y=lnz[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dy}{dz}=\frac{1}{z}=z^{-1}=(\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx})^{-1}=\frac{cos2x}{sin2x}+cosx[/tex]


looking at z use the quotient rulee for the first part sin2x/cos2x let:

[tex]u=sin2x[/tex] [tex]\frac{du}{dx}=2cos2x[/tex]

[tex]v=cos2x[/tex] [tex]\frac{dv}{dx}=-2sin2x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dz}{dx}=\frac{v\frac{du}{dx}-u\frac{dv}{dx}}{v^2}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{(cos2x)(2cos2x)-(sin2x)(-2sin2x)}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{(2cos^22x)+(2sin^22x)}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{2(cos^22x)+(sin^22x)}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]

As [tex]sin^2x+cos^2x=1[/tex] therefore:

[tex]=\frac{2}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]


Going back to the now partionally differentated value of z

[tex]y=\frac{1}{cosx}=cos^{-1}x[/tex]

if [tex]y=cos^{-1}x[/tex] then [tex]x=cosx[/tex]

so [tex]\frac{dx}{dy}=-siny[/tex] so [tex]\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-1}{sin y}[/tex]

since - [tex]cos^2y+sin^2y=1[/tex] then [tex]sin^2y=1-cos^2y=1-x^2[/tex]

meaning [tex]siny=\sqrt{1-x^2}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{d}{dx}{cos^{-1}}=\frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}[/tex]

That menas that[tex]\frac{dz}{dx}=\frac{2}{(cos^22x)}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}[/tex]


Back to the fist chain rule:

[tex]\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{dz}.\frac{dz}{dx}=(\frac{cos2x}{sin2x}+cosx).(\frac{2}{(cos^22x)}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}})[/tex]



Sorry for the mass workings but I've been struggling with this and have now had a brain failure and can't see if I am right or even how to simplify the final differential.

Is what I have done correct?
 
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parabol said:

Homework Statement



By using cos and sin subs for tan and sec, find the gradient of:

ln(tan2x+secx)

Homework Equations



tanx=sinx/cosx

secx=1/cosx

The Attempt at a Solution



Substituting

[tex]y=ln(\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx})[/tex]

Using the chain rule let:

[tex]z= \frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx}[/tex]


[tex]y=lnz[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dy}{dz}=\frac{1}{z}=z^{-1}=(\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx})^{-1}=\frac{cos2x}{sin2x}+cosx[/tex]
No! 1/(a+ b) is NOT equal to (1/a) + (1/b).


looking at z use the quotient rulee for the first part sin2x/cos2x let:

[tex]u=sin2x[/tex] [tex]\frac{du}{dx}=2cos2x[/tex]

[tex]v=cos2x[/tex] [tex]\frac{dv}{dx}=-2sin2x[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dz}{dx}=\frac{v\frac{du}{dx}-u\frac{dv}{dx}}{v^2}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{(cos2x)(2cos2x)-(sin2x)(-2sin2x)}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{(2cos^22x)+(2sin^22x)}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{2(cos^22x)+(sin^22x)}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]

As [tex]sin^2x+cos^2x=1[/tex] therefore:

[tex]=\frac{2}{(cos^22x)}[/tex]


Going back to the now partionally differentated value of z

[tex]y=\frac{1}{cosx}=cos^{-1}x[/tex]

if [tex]y=cos^{-1}x[/tex] then [tex]x=cosx[/tex]

so [tex]\frac{dx}{dy}=-siny[/tex] so [tex]\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-1}{sin y}[/tex]

since - [tex]cos^2y+sin^2y=1[/tex] then [tex]sin^2y=1-cos^2y=1-x^2[/tex]

meaning [tex]siny=\sqrt{1-x^2}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{d}{dx}{cos^{-1}}=\frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}[/tex]

That menas that[tex]\frac{dz}{dx}=\frac{2}{(cos^22x)}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}[/tex]


Back to the fist chain rule:

[tex]\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{dz}.\frac{dz}{dx}=(\frac{cos2x}{sin2x}+cosx).(\frac{2}{(cos^22x)}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}})[/tex]



Sorry for the mass workings but I've been struggling with this and have now had a brain failure and can't see if I am right or even how to simplify the final differential.

Is what I have done correct?
 
HallsofIvy said:
No! 1/(a+ b) is NOT equal to (1/a) + (1/b).

Thanks for the input. Have I started off using the method by using the chain rule?

Do I just leave it as:

[tex](\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx})^{-1}[/tex]

?
 
You have another mistake:
[tex]\frac{1}{cosx} \neq cos^{-1}x = arccosx[/tex]
You can look here on how to differentiate something like 1/f(x) here
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reciprocal_rule
Look at the last example on the page :wink:

One more note: it would have been much easier to differentiate tan2x using u=2x than changing it to sin2x/cos2x, although you did get that part correct.

parabol said:
Thanks for the input. Have I started off using the method by using the chain rule?

Do I just leave it as:

[tex](\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx})^{-1}[/tex]

?

That, or put it in the denominator as /(tan2x + secx), or find a common denominator and add them, then take the reciprocal to get rid of the -1.
 
I'm still not 100% with this question.

I have been re-working on it and have now come up with this answer.

[tex]\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{\frac{2(sin2x)^2}{(cos2x)^2}+\frac{sinx}{(cosx)^2}+2}{\frac{sin2x}{cos2x}+\frac{1}{cosx}}[/tex]

Does this look right?
 
Where did that last 2 come from in the numerator at the end? If you take that out, you have the correct derivative of ln(tan2x + secx).