Is the Z-Transform of sin(Bn) Really Zero?

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The discussion centers on calculating the Z-transform of the function x(n) = sin(Bn). The user attempts to split the function into two parts, applying the Z-transform to each separately. They find that the Z-transform of the first part yields a known result from a table, while the second part leads to an equivalent expression that cancels out the first. This results in the conclusion that the Z-transform is indeed zero. The user questions the validity of this conclusion, referencing the relationship between sine and exponential functions.
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Homework Statement



I'm trying to take the (two-sided, aka defined for all n) Z-transform of

x(n)=sin(Bn)

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



What I tried to do was split x(n) into

x(n)=sin(Bn)u(n)+sin(Bn)u(-n-1)

The Z transform of the first part of x(n) was found from a table. The z transform of the 2nd was found from the fact that the z transform of -sin(Bn)u(-n-1) equals the z transform of sin(Bn)u(n)

X(z)=\frac{z sin(B)}{z^2-2zcos(B)+1}-\frac{z sin(B)}{z^2-2zcos(B)+1}

So the z transform is zero? Could this be?
 
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Remember that sin x = \frac {e^{jx}-e^{-jx}}{2j}
 

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