I just noticed in reading Griffiths that he places the base of the infinite square well at a zero potential while he places the base of the finite square well at a negative potential -V_0, where V_0 is a positive, real number; is there any reason for this? I just started learning about them/am not too familiar with them so I may be missing the importance, but why aren't they both just placed at zero?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# I Finite vs. Infinite Square Well potential base question

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**