Fluctuation operator and partial wave

spaghetti3451
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Can someone please explain to me why the expression ##[-\Box + U''(\Phi(r))]## is called the fluctuation operator?

I was also wondering how to derive the following for the ##l^{th}## partial wave of the above operator:

##-\frac{d^2}{dr^2}-\frac{3}{r}\frac{d}{dr} + \frac{l(l+2)}{r}+ U''(\Phi(r))##

Any help would be very helpful.
 
Is it because the the time components of the gauge fields are all eigenvectors of it?
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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