Use the Fourier series technique to show that the following series sum to the quantities shown:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

1+1/3^2+1/5^2+...+1/n^2=pi^2/8 for n going to infinity

I foudn the series to be:

sum(1/(2n-1)^2,n,1,infinity)

but I don't know how to prove the idenity.

I don't know how to go about solving it using the Fourier method. Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

I was able to prove sum(1/n^4,n,1,infinity)=pi^4/90 and sum(1/n^2,n,1,infinity)=pi^2/6 and I'm not sure if the problem is simular.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Fourier Series technique

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**