Functionally Determined and 1NF

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In the discussion, the focus is on the implications of a primary key (PK) in a relational database table (R) that is not in First Normal Form (1NF). It is concluded that if R is not in 1NF, then the PK does not functionally determine the table. Once the table is normalized to 1NF, the original PK may no longer serve as the primary key. This highlights the importance of normalization in ensuring that primary keys effectively determine the data within a table.
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Hi All,
Say we have a relation R ( i.e., a table in a relational DB ), which has a primary key PK, but R is not

in 1 NF. I guess we then conclude that PK _does not_ functionally-determine the table, since, after

the table is put in 1NF, PK is o longer the primary key, right? It seems obviously true, but I have

been wrong before...

Thanks.
 
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It might help to say that "1 NF" means First Normal Form.
 
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