GF(q); x^p-x+a has no root => irreducible [PROOF]

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves showing that the polynomial f(x) = x^p - x + a is irreducible over the finite field GF(q) if and only if it has no roots in GF(q). The context is rooted in finite fields and polynomial factorization.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of irreducibility and the existence of roots, with one suggesting that if f is irreducible, it must have no roots. Another participant questions the reasoning behind the observation that roots would extend to a series of elements if the polynomial's power were q instead of p.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring the relationships between roots and irreducibility. There is an exchange of observations and clarifications regarding notation and the nature of elements in GF(p) versus GF(q). No consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential misunderstandings regarding notation and the characteristics of finite fields, particularly the distinction between elements of GF(p) and GF(q). The original poster expresses uncertainty about the implications of their observations in the context of the problem.

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Homework Statement



Let q=p^e, where p is a prime and e is a positive integer. Let a be in GF(q). Show that f(x)=x^p-x+a is irreducible over GF(q) if and only if f(x) has no root in GF(q)

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The Attempt at a Solution



One of the directions seems obvious. Namely, if f is irreducible, the f has no roots: if f had a root, say b in GF(q), then f(x)=(x-b)*g(x), where g is a poly with coefficients from GF(q).

The other direction: if f has no root, then f is irreducible. Or equivalently, f is reducible, then f has a root in GF(q). Frankly, I don't have any ideas. The only "observation" I made is that if the power of f were q rather than p and it had a root, say b, then b+1, b+2,...,b+p-1 would be roots, too. I think the key point here is that I need to "guess" what the linear factorization of f in its splitting field looks like.
 
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UD1 said:
The only "observation" I made is that if the power of f were q rather than p and it had a root, say b, then b+1, b+2,...,b+p-1 would be roots, too.
I could understand this if you were adding arbitrary elements of GF(q) -- but since you're just adding elements of GF(p), I don't understand why you are insisting on q instead of p.
 
Hurkyl said:
I could understand this if you were adding arbitrary elements of GF(q) -- but since you're just adding elements of GF(p), I don't understand why you are insisting on q instead of p.

OK. It looks that there is some notation misunderstanding. I'm not that well familiar with finite fields so I might have used the type of notation not usually used.

By GF(q) I mean a finite field of order q (with q elements) where q is a power of prime p, and that p is a characteristic of the field.
 
Right, that's what I thought you meant. The numbers you're adding to b: 0,1,2,...,p-1, are all elements of GF(p).
 
Hurkyl said:
Right, that's what I thought you meant. The numbers you're adding to b: 0,1,2,...,p-1, are all elements of GF(p).


So, how does that help?
 
Well, if I'm right, then your observation applies. Surely that's better than your observation not applying?
 
Hurkyl said:
Well, if I'm right, then your observation applies. Surely that's better than your observation not applying?

So, we know that, assuming that b is a root in some extension of F, then

f(x)=\prod_{j=0}^{p-1}(x-(b+j)).

Now suppose that f is reducible, that is f=gh for some polynomials g and h whose coefficients are in GF(q). There must exists a proper subset I of {0,...,p-1} such that

g(x)=\prod_{j\in I}(x-(b+j)).

How does it follow that f has a root in F. Namely, that b is in F?
 

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