Harmonic motion of the dipole?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the harmonic motion of a dipole and the application of energy conservation principles. The equations provided demonstrate the relationship between kinetic energy and potential energy, specifically how the potential energy at angle theta transitions to kinetic energy at pi/2. Questions arise regarding the approximation of torque from qEdsin(theta) to qED*theta, which is valid under the assumption of small angles. Additionally, the potential energy is confirmed to be zero at pi/2, but clarification is sought on the dipole's ability to reach that angle. The conversation highlights the need for understanding these concepts for an upcoming test.
StephenDoty
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the conservation of energy formula for a dipole
\DeltaK=-\DeltaU
(1/2)Iw^2=-(-qEDcos(theta))
(1/2)Iw^2=qEDcos(theta)

E-field going parallel to the y-axis. if the positive end of the dipole was in the first quad with angle theta from the y-axis and the negative end of the dipole was in the third quad, what would be the angular velocity of the dipole at the y-axis? using theta0= theta or the angle the dipole is released.U(pi/2)=0. And what is the period of the harmonic motion of the dipole?

The answer is w=\sqrt{(2qED/I) * (1-cos(theta0)}
1/2Iw^=qEDcos(theta). then to find the answer the change in potential energy has to go to theta0 to pi/2?? Do this work?? How do you prove the U(pi/2)=0 since at pi/2 the potential energy from theta0 has turned to kinetic energy? qED(cos(pi/2)-cos(theta0))= 0?

For the period, The harmonic formula d^2x/dt^2=-w^2x replacing x with theta d^2theta/dt^2 = w*theta
and since I*angular acceleration= torque and torque=qEdsin(theta) but my teacher changed torque to qED*theta. Why??
Then I just used I*d^2theta/dt^2 = torque or I*-w^2*theta=torque to find w. And w=2pi/T to find T.

Why was the torque changed from qEdsin(theta) to qEd*theta? And is the harmonic formula d^2x/dt^2=-w^2x the same no matter what?Thanks for the help.
Stephen
 
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I have a test on this tomorrow, so could someone please look at the equations and the questions about how to prove U(pi/2)= 0 and why qEDsin(theta) turned into qED*theta and if the second derivative is always equal to -w^2*x for harmonic motion?


Thank you.
Stephen
 


bump.. Can anyone answer my questions?

Please! I do not understand why qEDsin(theta) turned into qED*theta
 


Hi StephenDoty,

The approximation \sin\theta\to \theta is used when the angle \theta is assumed to be small.

I don't understand what you are asking about U(\pi/2). The formula for U shows that it is zero at the angle \pi/2. However, the dipole never gets to that angle, so I'm not sure what you are asking.
 
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