To LindaGarrette:
In post 49 I agree with you when you say:
“Most people are very confused about both the definitions and the philosophical interpretations of determinism and free will. Determinism means predictability…”
Because your own statement is either simply wrong or an extreme example of this confusion! If you have, as you say, been reading this and related threads, you have failed to understand what Moving Finger has made very clear - Determinism is an ontic property, predictability is an epistemic property.
Determinism DOES NOT means predictability. Rather than show this by giving definitions, I will give a specific example. (One counter example is sufficient to prove “Determinism means predictability” is false and is quite possibly an example of your confusion.)
Suppose I write a good random number generator program for my battery powered computer, and seal it up in a box which has a 32 digit display of the new number generated in response to each button push. (This button and display obviously are available on outer surface of the box.) I then give it to you.
You can not predict the number that will be displayed prior to pushing the button, but surely you would agree that computers running fixed programs are deterministic. Thus, you statement is false or at best confused by not knowing what the words you use mean.
I want to remove any possibility that you could learn the details of the deterministic program before using it, so I tell a little more about my box and me:
The box will explode if opened or following the fifth button push. I died just after giving it to you. You (and every one assisting you) will surely fail to predict all of the first four deterministic displays produced by the first four button pushes. One example of unpredictability of a deterministic system is sufficient counter example to prove your statement wrong or confused.
I also find unintelligible your post 54 statement:
“Those events do not exist in space/time and cannot be observed. You need to come up with a real example.”
Pickelhead’s post 53 examples (atomic decay, the spontaneous existence and annihilation of pairs of virtual particles.), which you reference by “those events,” certainly occur in space and time. If not, I ask where do they occur or are denying that they exist?
The first (atomic decay) may be observed immediately when it happens by radiation detectors and often subsequently by the transformation of the decaying element. For example, in Beta decay when a negative charge leaves the nucleus, the atomic number of the element increases by one, and the chemistry of that atom becomes completely different. In some cases, perhaps even a single decay can be confirmed by sensitive physical chemistry, for example by repeated excitation and observation of the new line spectra from a low pressure gas discharge.
The experimentally observed Casimir effect is an observable consequence of the second, (vacuum polarization), which violates conservation of energy for such a brief time that this violation is consistent with the uncertainty principle of quantum mechanics. The existence of the VP pair is of such a short duration that you may be correct in statement that it has never been observed directly. Another consequence of VP, widely accepted, but definitely not yet observed is Hawking radiation.
I will also make a “most people” statement:
Most people tend to agree with Pickelhead that these events are at least probably “uncaused” but one can not be sure. There could be “hidden variable” that mankind has yet to discover, operating in a completely deterministic to cause both of Pickelhead‘s examples, but currently (and forever if the UP of QM is true) epistemically indeterminate (unpredictable) fashion.