erickalle said:
rbj:
Next quote is from James Clerk Maxwell.
Quote:
“In speaking of the energy of the field, however, I wish to be understood literally. All energy is the same as mechanical energy, whether it exists in the form of motion or in that of elasticity, or in any other form. The energy in electromagnetic phenomena is mechanical energy.”
Much more satisfying is it to convert electromechanical units into mechanical units and we will end up with our usual units of mass, length and time without fractional powers. This will also yield some surprising results.
i do not disagree with you or Maxwell that all energy is, ultimately, mechanical. you somehow have to mechanically move these charges around (in the transmitting device or antenna) to make an electromagnetic radiative field that will have a mechanical effect on the (free) charges at some remote location (the receiving antenna).
but, not all (mechanical) forces or actions are the same thing. even though there is a common model for 3 of the 4 big interactions, the source of the mechanical "push" or "pull" (that might result in work or energy being transferred somehow) between electrical charges is not the same mechanical action that gravity is (the non-GR perspective, for argument).
it still doesn't speak to my issue with bogusly defining electric charge purely from [T]ime, [L]ength, and [M]ass, by defining its unit in such a way to set the Coulomb Force Constant to the dimensionless 1. it's hard to totally quantify the objection, but i'll try by using the example of how force is defined.
i suppose we could say that [F]orce is a completely different and independent species of animal than anything we could construct from [T]ime, [L]ength, and [M]ass. then we would observe, experimentally, and codify in a "law" that force is
proportional to the time derivative of momentum (where momentum is
defined to be the dimensional product of mass and velocity). So then we would say, that force measured in some completely arbitrarily defined unit we'll call a "farg" to be
F \propto \frac{dp}{dt}
or
F = K \frac{dp}{dt}
where K is whatever constant or proportionality that we need to convert (kg m/s
2) to fargs.
so suppose there was some prototype spring somewhere and the force required to compress it by 1 cm is defined to be 1 farg (note that this definition has something to do with the definition of length, but nothing to do with time or mass), then because that definition of the unit force is pre-existing, after observing that 1 farg accelerates a kg mass 3 m/s
2 and 2 fargs accelerates a kg by 6 m/s
2, we would then need a a constant K = 1/3 farg s
2/(kg m) to express Newton's 2
nd law. but there is no natural motivation to define force in that way. whatever Force is, when there is a non-zero net amount of it acting on any body, it always manifests itself as a time rate of change of momentum. there need be no difference between the concept of force and the time rate of change of momentum, so we may as well define and understand them to be the same thing, just as we understand velocity to be the time rate of change of position or power to be the time rate of transfer of energy.
now, we have observed that this
stuff we call "charge" exerts forces on each other, that the force between a pair of charges is proportional to either charge (and thus proportional to its product) and inversely proportional to the square of distance between the two.
so we say:
F \propto \frac{q_1 q_2}{r^2}
or
F = k \frac{q_1 q_2}{r^2}
then the cgs guys make the same kind of argument (but it's not so natural, this time) as with the Newton of force definition, to define the unit electric charge in such a way that causes the the k factor to disappear. to become exactly the dimensionless 1. but then, for the cgs guys, the units on charge have to be:
dyne = statC
2/cm
2
or
g cm/s
2 = statC
2/cm
2
or
statC
2 = g cm
3/s
2
or
statC = g
1/2 cm
3/2 s
-1
that is what the cgs people say a statcoulomb is. but to that, admittedly without a rigorous refutation, I'm simply saying that identifying electric charge to be
[Q] = [M]
1/2 [L]
3/2 [T]
-1
simply seems more unbelievable than saying that electric charge is something else. some other completely different property or dimension of physical quantity than that contrived expression above. i didn't declare that it's salient physics, only than that it is completely "unsatisfying to me." but then that means that there is a dimensionful conversion factor k that converts the computed quantity of [Q]
2/[L]
2 to [F]orce. we can still choose units to set the numerical value of k to 1, but unless we go all the way to describe everything in terms of Planck Units (where all physical measure is dimensionless), i don't accept that conversion factor to be dimensionless. it's like saying
G is dimensionless (and we can do that, but not if we define [T], [L], and [M] independently).