lennybogzy said:
Ok... is the measurement problem a result of HUP?
No, it isn't. The uncertainty theorem is just a theorem in QM that tells us something about how far from the average we should expect the results to be when we measure the same two observables on a large number of identical systems prepared in the same state.
The "measurement problem" isn't even a consequence of QM. It's a consequence of assuming that both of the following statements are true (
in addition to all the axioms of the standard version of QM):
a) A state vector is a mathematical representation of all the properties of a system.
b) A measurement has only one classical result.
So if the "measurement problem" bothers you, just stop insisting that both of the above must be true. Drop a) and you have the "ensemble interpretation". Drop b) and you have some sort of "many-worlds interpretation". Another option is to try to replace the standard version of QM with a theory that's equivalent to QM in the sense that it makes the same predictions, but is still a different theory because it's defined by different axioms. Such a theory may or may not have a "measurement problem".
lennybogzy said:
Can noncommuting observables be described as "mutually exclusive conceptual paradigms"?
I don't know what that would mean. "Observables" should be defined as equivalence classes of measuring devices. So an observable is something in the real world, with an operational definition. In the theory, observables are represented mathematically by bounded self-adjoint operators. When two such operators don't commute, the corresponding observables are said to be incompatible. The best way to think of non-commuting self-adjoint operators, or the corresponding incompatible observables, is as two (equivalence classes of) measuring devices that would interfere with each other if we tried to use both of them at the same time.
For example, take a Stern-Gerlach apparatus oriented to measure the spin of a silver atom along the z axis, and an identical Stern-Gerlach apparatus oriented to measure the spin along the x axis. Suppose you took the magnets from both and put them in the same place. The result wouldn't be a measuring device that measures S
x and S
z at the same time. The magnetic fields would add up to a new field, in a new direction, so if this new apparatus can measure anything at all, it would define some other observable (probably spin along the line x=z, y=0, in the direction of increasing x and z...but I haven't really thought that through).