Since we have anticommuting relations for the quantum Dirac fields, this(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

will bring us to the similar classical correspondance but result in Grassmann

spinor field function instead. (such as path integral)

So when we consider an arbitrary interaction term that like (\bar{\psi} \psi)^n, if the field is really a Grassmann field, then it may be zero when two identical fields meet (at same spacetime point). So why such a term can still be possible?

thanks for clarify this concept.

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# Help! How to understand classical Fermion field from anticommuting relations?

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