Since we have anticommuting relations for the quantum Dirac fields, this(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

will bring us to the similar classical correspondance but result in Grassmann

spinor field function instead. (such as path integral)

So when we consider an arbitrary interaction term that like (\bar{\psi} \psi)^n, if the field is really a Grassmann field, then it may be zero when two identical fields meet (at same spacetime point). So why such a term can still be possible?

thanks for clarify this concept.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Help! How to understand classical Fermion field from anticommuting relations?

Loading...

Similar Threads for Help understand classical | Date |
---|---|

I Help in understanding a quantum circuit | Mar 29, 2017 |

I Can you help me understand this core principle? | Feb 20, 2017 |

I Please help me understand quantum tunneling conceptually? | Feb 11, 2017 |

B Help Understanding the Uncertainty Principle | Aug 23, 2016 |

I Help to understand the wave function for atom (gas) | Jul 14, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**