Help needed in solving an IVP D.E. over 2 intervals

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Homework Statement



y" +4y = g(x) ; y (0) = 1 & y(0) = 2

g(x) =
sinx , 0 \leqx \leq pi/2
0 , x \succ pi/2

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



1> g(x) = sin x

solving i get :
yc = ec1sin2x + ec2cos2x

US set of sin x = {sinx, cosx} so yp = Asinx + Bcosx

solving i get:
yp = (1/3)sinx

so
y = ec1sin2x + ec2cos2x + (1/3)sinx ...(1)

for the conditions given i get:

c1 = 5/6e & ec2 = 1/e

thus (1) becomes:
y = (5/6)sin2x + cos2x + (1/3)sinx ... (2) for x between 0 & pi/2


2> for g(x) = 0 with x greater than pi/2

we have : y" + 4y = 0
with m1 = 2i & m2 = -2i

y = ec1sin2x +ec2cos2x ...(3)

solving for the conditions giver we get:

c1 = 1/ e = c2 thus
y = sin 2x + cos 2x ... (4)

from here on i can;t figure how to continue to find a solution / y & y' are continuous @ x = pi/2

i need help please.

note that the exercise is long enough to post all the details of the attempt of solution. i hope u reply. thx
 
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Hi bobmerhebi! :smile:

(have a ≤ and a ≥ and a π :wink:)

(and why are you using the difficult-to-read-and-type c1 and c2 instead of the usual A and B? :rolleyes:)

(and what is e?)
bobmerhebi said:
y" +4y = g(x) ; y (0) = 1 & y(0) = 2

y = (5/6)sin2x + cos2x + (1/3)sinx ... (2) for x between 0 & pi/2

Very good …

now just find y(π/2) and y'(π/2), and use those as your new initial conditions. :smile:
 
ur right about c1 & c2 but i got used to use them for the homog. solution & A & B... for the particulat sol.'s

after calculating for \pi/2 for both y & y' with x btw 0 & \pi/2 i get:

y(\pi/2) = -2/3 &
y'(\pi/2) = -1 . but now what?

im asked to find a solution so that y & y' are continuous @ \pi/2.
 
bobmerhebi said:
y(\pi/2) = -2/3 &
y'(\pi/2) = -1 . but now what?

im asked to find a solution so that y & y' are continuous @ \pi/2.

Hi bobmerhebi! :smile:

(what happened to that π i gave you? :rolleyes:)

Isn't y'(π/2)-= -5/3?

Anyway, just solve the particular solution all over again, with y(π/2) and y'(π/2) as your new boundary conditions. :smile:
 
sorry but i still don't get it.

lets go all over again.
1st u asked what is e. its the exponential. why ? is there anything wrong with it?

2nd: u told me to take a = \pi, less than & grater than \pi. why is that? & what do u mean by a?

then u said to use y(\pi/2) & y'(\pi/2). but which y? the one with g(x) = sin x or 0?

as for the y'(\pi/2). if its y' of y with x btw 0 & \pi/2 then y'(\pi) = (5/6)cos\pi -2sin\pi +(1/3)sin\pi/2 = -4/3

finally ur saying to solve y_p again for those values. how is that if i already have the coefficients?

thx
 
sorry but i still don't get it.

lets go all over again.
1st u asked what is e. its the exponential. why ? is there anything wrong with it?

2nd: u told me to take a = \pi, less than & grater than \pi. why is that? & what do u mean by a?

then u said to use y(\pi/2) & y'(\pi/2). but which y? the one with g(x) = sin x or 0?

as for the y'(\pi/2). if its y' of y with x btw 0 & \pi/2 then y'(\pi) = (5/6)cos\pi -2sin\pi +(1/3)sin\pi/2 = -4/3

finally ur saying to solve y_p again for those values. how is that if i already have the coefficients?

thx
 
bobmerhebi said:
1st u asked what is e. its the exponential. why ? is there anything wrong with it?


Yes! Why is it there? It's multiplied by an arbitrary constant anyway, so ec1 or ec2 is just the same as c1 or c2.
2nd: u told me to take a = \pi, less than & grater than \pi. why is that? & what do u mean by a?


erm … look at the signature at the bottom of this post! :biggrin:
as for the y'(\pi/2). if its y' of y with x btw 0 & \pi/2 then y'(\pi) = (5/6)cos\pi -2sin\pi +(1/3)sin\pi/2 = -4/3

ah, but isn't it (1/3)cosπ/2?
then u said to use y(\pi/2) & y'(\pi/2). but which y? the one with g(x) = sin x or 0?

g(x) = 0, because that's for the interval you'll be dealing with. :smile:
 
y = (5/6)sin2x + cos2x + (1/3)sinx ... (2) with 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2

y = sin 2x + cos 2x ... (4) with x (just greater than not or equal) π/2

& y(π/2) = -2/3 & y'(π/2) = -5/3

then i should use these new initial conditions with (4). for what? i have y = sin 2x + cos 2x ... (4)

sorry, it might be so simple but I am tired & i have a culture exam 2moro & a 25 page assignment that;s still unfinished. so excuse.
 
Sorry … I'm not seeing where the problem is …

you worked out the ≤ π/2 section fine :smile:

just go through the same procedure for the ≥ π/2 section …

by definition, they'll fit together continuously. :wink:

Get some sleep now :zzz: and try it again in the morning :smile:
 
  • #10
thx i will retry it late this night. unfortunately i have to submit my assignment 2moro morning. but never mind. thanks for ur sincere help
 
  • #11
thx i will retry it late this night. unfortunately i have to submit my assignment 2moro morning. but never mind. thanks for ur sincere help
 
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