Help Please: Proving an Energy Question Related to Force of Attraction

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A particle of mass m experiences a force of attraction towards the origin, described by F = -k/x². The task is to prove that if the particle starts from rest at x = a, it will reach the origin in a time T = (1/2)πa√(ma/2k). The proof involves transforming the second-order differential equation into a first-order separable equation using the chain rule, leading to an integration process that incorporates trigonometric substitutions. The final integration yields the desired time formula, confirming the teacher's explanation. This proof is particularly challenging for students, especially those new to calculus concepts.
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Energy Question -- Help Please

A particle of mass m moves on the x-axis under the influence of a forace of attraction towards the origin give by
F= \frac{-k}{x^2} i.

If the particle starts from rest at x=a prove that it will arrive at the origin in a time given by

\frac{1}{2}\pi a \sqrt{\frac{ma}{2k}}

Our teacher explained it to me in class but unforutently he wasn't able to finish it. I was wondering if someone could step me through this proof please.
 
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I tried divding by mass and integradting twice to get distance but it didn't work
 
The differential equation m\frac{dv}{dt}= -\frac{k}{x^2} can't just be "integrated twice" because you don't know x as a function of t.

However, since t does not appear explicitely in the equation, there is a standard "trick" for reducing to a first order equation which can be integrated:
\frac{dv}{dt}= \frac{dv}{dx}\frac{dx}{dt} by the chain rule.
But \frac{dx}{dt}= v so the equation becomes:
mv\frac{dv}{dx}= -\frac{k}{x^2}

That's a "separable" differential equation. We separate it to get
m v dv= -\frac{kdx}{x^2}
and integrate to get
\frac{1}{2}m v^2= \frac{k}{x}+ C
When t=0, v= 0 and x= a so we have 0= \frac{k}{a}+ C or C= -\frac{k}{a} which gives

v^2= \frac{2k}{m}(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{a})
= \frac{2k}{ma}\frac{a-x}{x}
Which reduces to
v= \frac{dx}{dt}= \sqrt\(\frac{2k}{ma}\frac{a-x}{x}\)}
or
\sqrt{\frac{x}{a-x}}dx= \sqrt{\frac{2k}{ma}}dt

To integrate that let u= (a-x)1/2 so that du= (1/2)(a-x)-1/2dx and u2= a-x so x= a- u2. The equation becomes
2\sqrt{a-u^2}du= \sqrt{\frac{2k}{ma}}dt.

The left hand side is now a fairly standard trigonometric substitution:
Let u= √(a) sin(θ) so that du= √(a) cos(θ)dθ and √(a- u^2) becomes √(a) cos(θ) so the equation, in terms of θ is:
2a cos^2\theta dx= \sqrt{\frac{2k}{ma}} dt

To integrate that, use the trig identity cos2θ= (1/2)(1+ cos(2θ)) so that the equation becomes:
a(1+ cos(2\theta))d\theta= \sqrt{\frac{2k}{ma}}dt

That can be integrated directly to get

a(\theta+ \frac{1}{2}sin(2\theta)= \sqrt{\frac{2k}{ma}}t+ C

When t= 0, x= a so that u= 0 and θ= 0. The equation becomes
a(0+ 0)= 0+ C so C= 0.

When x= 0, u= \sqrt{a} and \theta= \frac{\pi}{2}. Of course, in that case 2\theta= \pi so sin(2\theta)= 0 and our formula becomes
\frac{a\pi}{2}= \sqrt{\frac{2k}{ma}}T
and
T= \frac{\pi a}{2}\sqrt{\frac{ma}{2k}}
as advertised!

Wow! I hope you teacher had some simpler way of doing that!
 
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Thank you so much for your response... this looks almsost identical to the way he showed in class today... Its alright that i didn't get it done in time, only a few kids in my class had it done. This is very hard for me as I am just taking Calc BC this year, your response is very useful to me.
 
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