Help with a momentum exchange please

  • Thread starter Thread starter Quant ummm?
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Exchange Momentum
AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on solving an inelastic momentum exchange problem where the initial velocities (v1 and v2) are zero, and the masses (m1 and m2) are known. The unknown final velocities (u1 and u2) are related through the equation m1u1 + m2u2 = 0, leading to the relationship u1 = -[m2/m1]u2. By substituting the known sum of the moduli of the velocities, the equations can be simplified to express |u1| and |u2| in terms of the known total modulus. The final formulas derived are |u2| = (m1/(m1 + m2))x and |u1| = (m2/(m1 + m2))x, providing a clear solution to the problem. This method effectively resolves the ambiguity in determining the individual speeds from their sum.
Quant ummm?
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
Hi there,

I am dealing with an inelastic, collinear momentum exchange of the form:

m1v1+m2v2=m1u1+m2u2

where m1 & m2 are known.

v1 & v2 are both 0

u1 & u2 are both unknown, however

MOD(u1)+MOD(u2) is known (ie the sum of modulus of each speed, I don't know how to do straight brackets here...)

which initial speed is regarded as + or - is irrelevant (to me).

I know that the exact speeds for u1 & u2 can be calculated, but I can't quite get me head around how (I'm more used to knowing one or the other, not their sum).

Although I can find the answer by gradually increasing one of the values on a spreadsheet, I'd like to see the actual solution. I'm guessing it can be solved either simultaneously or with a bit of calculus, but I'm not very good and working these things out.

Any help would be much appreciated.



p.s. I know this looks like homework, but its not. It really does though doesn't it. Real world though, honest.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Since v1 and v2 are both 0, you immediately have:
u1=-[m2/m1]u2

You the substitute into your expression for|u1| + |u2| to get |u1|

u1 = the result with a sign ambiguity.
 
m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=0 can be rearragned to \frac{u_{1}}{u_{2}}=-\frac{m_2}{m_1}and taken the modulus we get \frac{|u_{1}|}{|u_{2}|}=\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}}
Now, Let's call |u_{1}|+|u_{2}|=x where x is known, and if we divide by |u_{2}| and rearrange we get \frac{|u_{1}|}{|u_{2}|}=\frac{x}{|u_{2}|}-1
Therefore \frac{x}{|u_{2}|}-1=\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}} and rearragning for u_{2} we get |u_{2}|=\frac{m_{1}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}x and similarly for |u_{1}|=\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}x
 
That's brilliant, thank you very much for your help.
 
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
Back
Top