Help with proving this Kepler's laws based theorem

In summary, the proposition is that if a function r(t) has a constant length (//r(t)// is constant), then it can be proven that r(t) is always perpendicular to its derivative dr/dt at all values of t. This is essentially stating that the radius vector is always orthogonal to the velocity vector. This can be mathematically proven using the fact that d/dt(r.r) is equal to 2r dot dr/dt, and since //r(t)// is constant, the derivative is equal to 0.
  • #1
Dvsdvs
24
0
the proposition is that if r(t) has a constant length (//r(t)// is constant), then prove that r(t) is perpendicular to dr/dt at all t.


I was thinking that if r(t) is just a function of the radius and its magnitude //r// is constant, then its basically talking about a circle? and by saying prove that r is perpendicular to dr/dt is basically asking to prove that the radius vector is always orthogonal to the velocity v(t) vector? I need a mathematical proof of this proposition using vectors. Thank, you
 
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  • #2
What is d/dt(r.r)?

BTW Kepler hasn't got much to do with it.
Any wiggly path on the surface of a sphere has constant r.

David
 
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  • #3
I'm not sure what your asking. this is a general proof so i don't know what d/dt(r.r) is. all the information i have is posted.
 
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  • #4
i got an idea... would the //x(t)// be equal to the length of the curve of x(t) and therefore //x(t)//=integral(x(t).dx/dt) and since //x(t)// is constant the indefinite integral can only=c if the x(t).dx/dt=0 and so they are perpendicular. Can someone please tell me if all this makes sense?
 
  • #5
Dvsdvs said:
I'm not sure what your asking. this is a general proof so i don't know what d/dt(r.r) is. all the information i have is posted.

r^2 is constant:


0 = d/dt r^2 = 2 r dot dr/dt
 
  • #6
Count Iblis said:
0 = d/dt r^2 = 2 r dot dr/dt

oh ok so you're saying that since //r(t)// is constant then //r(t)//^2 is constant which means (r.r) is constant and that derivative which is a dot product is 0. yeah this was easier than i thought my integral solution also works i think
 

Related to Help with proving this Kepler's laws based theorem

Question 1: What is Kepler's first law?

Kepler's first law, also known as the law of ellipses, states that all planets move in elliptical orbits with the sun at one of the two foci.

Question 2: What is Kepler's second law?

Kepler's second law, also known as the law of equal areas, states that a line joining a planet and the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.

Question 3: What is Kepler's third law?

Kepler's third law, also known as the law of harmonies, states that the square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

Question 4: How do these laws relate to each other?

These laws are interconnected and describe the motion of planets in the solar system. The first law describes the shape of the orbit, the second law describes the speed of the planet, and the third law relates the orbital period to the size of the orbit.

Question 5: How can I prove a theorem based on Kepler's laws?

To prove a theorem using Kepler's laws, you will need to use mathematical calculations and equations to show how the laws apply to the specific scenario. This may involve using the formulas for orbital motion, angular momentum, and other related concepts. It is important to have a strong understanding of Kepler's laws and their applications in order to successfully prove a theorem.

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