Hey ,if we need to calculate time dilation with an accelerating frame

anantchowdhary
Messages
372
Reaction score
0
Hey ,if we need to calculate time dilation with an accelerating frame of reference,cant we simply use the lorentz trasnformations and use instataneous velocity in place of relative velocity?

Alsousing einsteins derivation of the lorentz transformations we get 2ct=0

Now how do we explain this?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
time dilation+acceleration

anantchowdhary said:
Hey ,if we need to calculate time dilation with an accelerating frame of reference,cant we simply use the lorentz trasnformations and use instataneous velocity in place of relative velocity?

Alsousing einsteins derivation of the lorentz transformations we get 2ct=0

Now how do we explain this?
IMHO the time dilation can be derived without using the LT. It relates a proper time interval in one of the reference frames to a coordinate time interval measured in the moving reference frame. In the case when the moving clock performs an accelerated motion (usually the hyperbolic motion) we should take into account that during the reception of two successive light signals the velocity of the receiver and the angle under which he receives the light signals could change. The best way to solve the problem is to use a relativistic space time and to intersect the world line of the accelerating observer with the world lines of the light signals.
the best thing a physicist can offer to another one are information and constructive criticism.
 
anantchowdhary said:
Hey ,if we need to calculate time dilation with an accelerating frame of reference,cant we simply use the lorentz trasnformations and use instataneous velocity in place of relative velocity?

Alsousing einsteins derivation of the lorentz transformations we get 2ct=0

Now how do we explain this?

Wouldn't that violate the principle of equivalence?
 
wich situation the first or the 2ct=0 one?
 
Citation for standard treatment of uniformly accelerated observers

Hi, anant,

anantchowdhary said:
Hey ,if we need to calculate time dilation with an accelerating frame of reference,cant we simply use the lorentz transformations and use instantaneous velocity in place of relative velocity?

This doesn't quite make sense as stated ("time dilation" always refers to some specific pair of observers in a specific spacetime, in this case Minkowski spacetime).

I feel that I must caution you to make sure you study mainstream sources before investigating more idiosyncratic approaches. For the simplest mainstream treatment of accelerated observers (known as the Rindler chart for Minkowski spacetime), see the classic textbook Misner, Thorne, and Wheeler, Gravitation, Freeman, 1973.

It is easy to write down a generalized Rindler chart which will handle an arbitrarily accelerating congruence of observers. If, after reading MTW, you need some help finding that, ask a followup question.
 
Last edited:
Thread 'Can this experiment break Lorentz symmetry?'
1. The Big Idea: According to Einstein’s relativity, all motion is relative. You can’t tell if you’re moving at a constant velocity without looking outside. But what if there is a universal “rest frame” (like the old idea of the “ether”)? This experiment tries to find out by looking for tiny, directional differences in how objects move inside a sealed box. 2. How It Works: The Two-Stage Process Imagine a perfectly isolated spacecraft (our lab) moving through space at some unknown speed V...
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. The Relativator was sold by (as printed) Atomic Laboratories, Inc. 3086 Claremont Ave, Berkeley 5, California , which seems to be a division of Cenco Instruments (Central Scientific Company)... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/relativator-circular-slide-rule-simulated-with-desmos/ by @robphy
In Philippe G. Ciarlet's book 'An introduction to differential geometry', He gives the integrability conditions of the differential equations like this: $$ \partial_{i} F_{lj}=L^p_{ij} F_{lp},\,\,\,F_{ij}(x_0)=F^0_{ij}. $$ The integrability conditions for the existence of a global solution ##F_{lj}## is: $$ R^i_{jkl}\equiv\partial_k L^i_{jl}-\partial_l L^i_{jk}+L^h_{jl} L^i_{hk}-L^h_{jk} L^i_{hl}=0 $$ Then from the equation: $$\nabla_b e_a= \Gamma^c_{ab} e_c$$ Using cartesian basis ## e_I...

Similar threads

Replies
14
Views
1K
Replies
88
Views
7K
Replies
16
Views
2K
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
60
Views
5K
Replies
20
Views
2K
Back
Top