How can the force NOT be zero here?

  • Thread starter flyingpig
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In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of magnetic fields and the vectorial sum of forces on charged particles in these fields. The picture on pages 17-18 shows that the total force is zero, but this is only true for particles with a specific velocity (v=E/B). The conversation also mentions the use of a velocity selector in mass spectrometers to ensure a precise initial velocity for particles.
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  • #2
What page in the book? I don't se any pages labeled 17 and 18.
 
  • #3
In the pdf
 
  • #4
I loaded the pdf. It starts on page 894.
 
  • #5
There are 32 pages
 
  • #6
Are you talking about the "Active figure 29.23"?
If so you're right that the total force is zero, but I see nowhere why it couldn't be zero.

They talk about the Lorentz force which isn't necessarily zero and is precisely zero in the special case of the figure 29.23. It can of course be zero in other (hypothetical at least) situations.

Where did you read that the force is NOT zero? What page exactly?
 
  • #7
I didn't read anywhere that it isn't zero, the picture tells me. The force is equal in magnitude and opposite direction
 
  • #8
Just a bit further down the same page, the point is that the velocity selector allows a charged particle with a certain velocity to shoot straight down the finely tuned system between the plates and in the magnetic field unimpeded. Presumably, if it veers off the middle line just a bit, the particle will be "discarded" if you will. Then, a slit at the end of the velocity selector will allow those particles that are of the certain velocity (v=E/B...and you can tune your velocity selectors E and B fields to get that specific velocity) to continue onward (such as in a mass spectrometer where you want to be sure of the initial velocity...stick a velocity selector in front of your mass spectrometer region, like in the next figure).

The net force is only 0 for those particles with v=E/B.
 

1. How can the force not be zero if there is no visible force acting on an object?

The force acting on an object can still be non-zero even if it is not visibly apparent. This is because forces can act on an object through invisible mechanisms such as electromagnetic or gravitational fields.

2. Can the force be zero if an object is at rest?

Yes, the force acting on an object can be zero if it is at rest. In this case, the net force acting on the object is balanced and there is no acceleration, causing the object to remain at rest.

3. How can the force be non-zero if an object is in motion?

The force acting on an object can still be non-zero even if it is in motion. This is because forces can cause changes in an object's motion, such as increasing or decreasing its speed or changing its direction.

4. Can the force be zero if an object is in free fall?

No, the force acting on an object in free fall is not zero. The force of gravity is acting on the object, causing it to accelerate towards the ground. However, the object may appear weightless because it is falling at the same rate as its surroundings.

5. How can the force not be zero if an object is in equilibrium?

The force acting on an object can still be non-zero even if it is in equilibrium. In this case, the forces acting on the object are balanced and cancel each other out, resulting in a net force of zero. However, the individual forces may still be non-zero.

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