marmoset
- 42
- 6
About the integral explanation of the 1/2 in the expression for kinetic energy, I understand the integration, but why does integrating mass x velocity with respect to velocity give kinetic energy?
I had always explained the half by saying that to stop an object mass m traveling at a velocity u, you apply a force which gives the object an acceleration of -F/m. Then I use v2 = u2 + 2as to work out the distance (s) this object travels before it stops. So 0 = u2 - 2Fs/m, and so Fs = mu2/2. Fs expresses the work done to stop the object, and so from conservation of energy the object's initial KE must have beeen mu2/2.
I had always explained the half by saying that to stop an object mass m traveling at a velocity u, you apply a force which gives the object an acceleration of -F/m. Then I use v2 = u2 + 2as to work out the distance (s) this object travels before it stops. So 0 = u2 - 2Fs/m, and so Fs = mu2/2. Fs expresses the work done to stop the object, and so from conservation of energy the object's initial KE must have beeen mu2/2.