How do I apply rolling friction to a ball?

AI Thread Summary
To apply rolling friction to a ball, it's essential to understand that the force of rolling friction (F = µmg) acts in the opposite direction of the ball's motion. This force should not be simply subtracted from the ball's velocity, as it could prevent the ball from coming to a stop. Instead, the rolling friction force must be proportional to the velocity, ensuring that it decreases as the ball slows down. The physics engine in use does not account for rolling friction, necessitating a manual implementation. Properly integrating this friction will allow for realistic ball movement and stopping behavior.
hyacint
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
Hello,

I need to apply rolling friction to a ball, but I don't understand where to plug it in.

I know the rolling friction that I want to put in, but I can't just subtract the force of rolling friction on velocity, because the ball would never come to a stop, it would turn back again (and make the ball going back and forward when velocity is smaller than that force).

F = µmg right? (on a flat plane at least)

But isn't this force depending on the velocity of the ball too? Because this force can't be more than the velocity of the ball, if so the ball could never stop. I don't get it.

I'm using a physics engine that handles everything else, but I need to plug in this rolling friction because the engine doesn't have it built in.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Velocity has a SIGN, remember.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
Back
Top