How do I solve for x in cotx=2 by using a scientific calculator?

AI Thread Summary
To solve for x in the equation cot(x) = 2 using a scientific calculator, one can use the inverse tangent function by entering tan^(-1)(1/2). Alternatively, the relationship arccot(x) = π/2 - arctan(x) can also be applied, but this is only valid for x > 0. The discussion highlights that arccot(x) and arctan(1/x) are equivalent under certain conditions, specifically when x is positive. The conversation also touches on the importance of understanding the angular ranges of these functions, as they differ for various values of x. Overall, the key takeaway is that using the reciprocal of tangent simplifies the calculation without needing a dedicated cot^(-1) function on calculators.
Cuisine123
Messages
38
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



How do I solve for x in cotx=2 by using a scientific calculator?
What do I have to enter?

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that I can enter tan^-1 (1/2) to find x, but is there another way to do it on a calculator?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Why do you need another way? If cot(x)=2 then 1/2=1/cot(x)=tan(x). The only other way to do it is to lobby the calculator companies for a cot^(-1) button.
 
There is another way:

The arccotangent of x is equal to one half pi minus the arctangent of x. The arccotangent of x only equals the arctangent of 1/x if x is greater than zero.

In short...

arccot(x)=\frac{\pi}{2}-arctan(x)

arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x>0

I don't know why this is true, my calculus book tells me so.
 
Char. Limit said:
There is another way:

The arccotangent of x is equal to one half pi minus the arctangent of x. The arccotangent of x only equals the arctangent of 1/x if x is greater than zero.

In short...

arccot(x)=\frac{\pi}{2}-arctan(x)

arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x>0

I don't know why this is true, my calculus book tells me so.

Draw a right triangle with an angle \theta and let the opposite side length be x and the adjacent side be 1 such that tan\theta=x. Now, \theta=arctan(x) and if we find the other angle in the triangle in terms of \theta, by sum of angles in a triangle, it is \pi/2 -\theta, so tan(\pi/2-\theta)=1/x thus arccot(x)=\pi/2-\theta=\pi/2-arctan(x).

You can prove the second result by a similar method.

@ the OP: you don't need an cot^{-1} function on your calculator since it's very simple to take the tan^{-1} of the reciprocal.
 
Thanks for the proof.
 
In fact, the "co" in "cosine" is there because the function gives the sine of the COmplementary angle. Same with the other co-functions.
 
Aha thanks for that neat little info I didn't know :smile:
 
Other proofs that arccot(x) = \pi[/tex]/2 - arctan(x) and arccot(x) = arctan(1/x):<br /> <br /> arccot(x) = \pi[/tex]/2 - arctan(x)&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Let x = tan(θ) = cot(\pi/2 - θ) (a trig identity)&lt;br /&gt; x = cot(\pi/2 - θ)&lt;br /&gt; arccot(x) = \pi/2 - θ&lt;br /&gt; tan(θ) = x&lt;br /&gt; θ = arctan(x)&lt;br /&gt; arccot(x) = \pi/2 - arctan(x)&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; arccot(x) = arctan(1/x)&lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; Let θ = arccot(x)&lt;br /&gt; cot(θ) = x&lt;br /&gt; 1/cot(θ) = tan(θ) = 1/x&lt;br /&gt; θ = arctan(1/x)&lt;br /&gt; arccot(x) = arctan(1/x)
 
Last edited:
Well the trig identity was derived from the properties of a right-triangle so your proof hasn't really changed much, other than giving someone the opportunity to realize it can be done that way too.

I'm curious as to why arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x&gt;0 as char.limit has posted. Why isn't this true for all non-zero x?
 
  • #10
Mentallic said:
Well the trig identity was derived from the properties of a right-triangle so your proof hasn't really changed much, other than giving someone the opportunity to realize it can be done that way too.

I'm curious as to why arccot(x)=arctan(\frac{1}{x}), x&gt;0 as char.limit has posted. Why isn't this true for all non-zero x?

arctan and arccot are defined with different angular ranges. Look it up and draw a graph. They only overlap for x>0 or resulting angle between 0 and pi/2.
 
  • #11
Thanks, Dick. I didn't quite know myself.
 
  • #12
Sorry I didn't quit understand what "angular ranges" meant.
I've drawn a graph for both:

cot^{-1}x=\pi/2-tan^{-1}x
cot^{-1}x=tan^{-1}(1/x)

and it seems as though the first is only true for x>0 while the second is true for all x.

Please elaborate so we can settle this.
 
  • #13
Well, I believe that invtrig functions are only defined for certain angles. For example, I'm pretty sure that arcsin(x) is only defined from -pi/2 to pi/2 on the y axis. Thus, the angular range of arcsin(x) is [-pi/2,pi/2], but don't quote me on that.

Arctangent I don't know about.
 
  • #14
I've just realized there is a another common convention for defining arccot. You can also define it to take values on (-pi/2,pi/2) but you pay the price of having it be discontinuous at 0. http://mathworld.wolfram.com/InverseCotangent.html Which 'arc' identities are true depends on what convention you are using. You HAVE to say which.
 
Back
Top