How Do We Solve the Definite Integral of log(sin(x))*log(cos(x)) from 0 to pi/2?

  • Thread starter Thread starter mathslover
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral
mathslover
Messages
17
Reaction score
0
How should we proceed to find the definite integral


Int[ log(sin(x))*log(cos(x)) ,{x,0,pi/2} ] ?






mathslover
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I can't remember the source of even the exact answer :( But I've seen integrals of that form done in some papers by Ramanujan where he expressed the answer in terms of the zeta function and something else, so it's not exactly an elementary integral.

This isn't how he did it, and I'm not sure if it will help, but you could express cos/sin in terms of an infinite product, split up the logs ( log [ab]= log [a] + log ) and then continue?
 
Leafing through "Treatise on Integral Calculus Vol. 2 --Joseph Edwards (1922)",I found
Wolstenholme had solved the above problem nicely as follow:

-Ng
 

Attachments

  • int.jpg
    int.jpg
    37 KB · Views: 485
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top