How Do You Calculate Angular Acceleration of a Rod at a Specific Angle?

AI Thread Summary
To calculate the angular acceleration of a uniform rod with a mass attached, the moment of inertia is determined using the parallel axis theorem, resulting in I_total = (10/3)ma^2. The torque is calculated by considering the weights of both the rod and the attached mass at the angle of π/3, leading to a total torque of τ = mga√3. The angular acceleration is then derived from the equation I_total * α = τ, yielding α = (mga√3) / (10/3)ma^2. The final result for angular acceleration simplifies to α = (3g) / (10a) after correcting for the angle used in torque calculations.
rock.freak667
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[SOLVED] Rod...and angular acceleration

Homework Statement


A uniform rod AB, of length 2a and mass m, has a particle of mass 1
2m attached to B. The rod is
smoothly hinged at A to a fixed point and can rotate without resistance in a vertical plane. It is released
from rest with AB horizontal. Find, in terms of a and g, the angular acceleration of the rod when it
has rotated through an angle of \frac{\pi}{3}

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



My idea is that the torque due to the weight and the mass is the net torque and that should be the same as I \alpha where I=moment of inertia of the entire thing.

I got I=\frac{10ma^2}{3} but I don't know how to incorporate that angle it is rotated through.
 
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Hi rock.freak667,

How did you find the moment of inertia? It looks like you used that the moment of inertia of the particle is 2 m a^2, but I don't think that is correct. (Is the mass of the particle 2m? If so, there is an extra 1 in your post.)

To find the angular acceleration, draw a diagram when it's at that angle, and use the formula (net torque = I alpha) that you mentioned. From the diagram you can calculate the torques at that particular angle.
 
The MOI through the centre is given by I_c=\frac{1}{12}ML^2

so for the rod in question, the MOI would be (through the centre)

I_c=\frac{1}{12}(mg+\frac{mg}{2})(2a)^2=\frac{1}{2}mga^2

and then by the parallel axis theorem to get the MOI about the end.

I=I_c+Mr^2

I=\frac{1}{2}mga^2 + (mg+\frac{mg}{2})(a)^2=2mga^2

is that correct moment of inertia about the end?

And I typed part of the question wrong. It should read

A uniform rod AB, of length 2a and mass m, has a particle of mass \frac{1}{2}m attached to B.
 
Last edited:
What's the moment of inertia of a rod about one end? Of the particle about that end? Add them.

(The moment of inertia depends on mass distribution not weight, so g should not appear.)
 
Doc Al said:
What's the moment of inertia of a rod about one end? Of the particle about that end? Add them.

(The moment of inertia depends on mass distribution not weight, so g should not appear.)

ok well then. Using the parallel axis theorem

I=\frac{1}{12}m(2a)^2+ma^2=\frac{4}{3}ma^2

and then adding the MOI of the mass(=\frac{m}{2}(2a)^2=2ma^2

then

I_{total}=\frac{4}{3}ma^2+2ma^2=\frac{10ma^2}{3}

So then when I draw the forces at that angle (weight of rod+weight of the mass at B) of \frac{\pi}{3}. How would I get the torque at that angle? Would it just be the total torque*sine of the angle?
 
rock.freak667 said:
ok well then. Using the parallel axis theorem

I=\frac{1}{12}m(2a)^2+ma^2=\frac{4}{3}ma^2

and then adding the MOI of the mass(=\frac{m}{2}(2a)^2=2ma^2

then

I_{total}=\frac{4}{3}ma^2+2ma^2=\frac{10ma^2}{3}
Perfect.

So then when I draw the forces at that angle (weight of rod+weight of the mass at B) of \frac{\pi}{3}. How would I get the torque at that angle? Would it just be the total torque*sine of the angle?
You can find the torque due to each weight separately and add them up:
\tau = \vec{r}\times\vec{W} = rW\sin\theta
 
Torque due to Weight of rod=mgasin(pi/3)=\frac{mga\sqrt{3}}{2}
Torque due to weight of mass=(mg/2)(2a)sin(pi/3)=\frac{mga\sqrt{3}}{2}

Total torque = mga\sqrt{3}

so that

I_{total} \alpha=mga\sqrt{3} \Rightarrow \alpha=\frac{mga\sqrt{3}}{I_{total}}

are the torques correct?
 
Looks good!
 
Doc Al said:
Looks good!

Apparently not...I found that the answer is really \alpha= \frac{3g}{10a}

and I get

\alpha=\frac{9\sqrt{3}g}{20a}
 
  • #10
Let me look it over one more time.
 
  • #11
I see the problem.
Doc Al said:
You can find the torque due to each weight separately and add them up:
\tau = \vec{r}\times\vec{W} = rW\sin\theta
In the above expression for torque, \theta is the angle between \vec{r} and \vec{W}, which is not \pi/3 but its complement.
rock.freak667 said:
Torque due to Weight of rod=mgasin(pi/3)=\frac{mga\sqrt{3}}{2}
Torque due to weight of mass=(mg/2)(2a)sin(pi/3)=\frac{mga\sqrt{3}}{2}
I must have been asleep at the wheel and assumed you were taking the sine of the correct angle. Sorry about that! :redface:

Correct that and you'll get the expected answer.
 
  • #12
ahhh..thanks..my diagram was wrong...I pit pi/3 between the rod and the hinge as the complement...thank you!
 
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