How do you test the convergence of i^n (imaginary number) or (-1)^n?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on testing the convergence of the series \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}i^n\) and the sequence \(a_n=i^n\). Participants clarify that both the series and the sequence diverge, emphasizing the importance of specifying what is being tested for convergence or divergence. The divergence test is mentioned as a potential method, but it is noted that it does not apply to indeterminate forms, which are not present in this case. The limit of \(i^n\) does not approach zero, as the terms alternate between \(i\), \(-1\), \(-i\), and \(1\). The conclusion is that since the limit does not exist, the series diverges.
Agnostic
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I was thinking alternating series test, but can't that only be used for testing for convergence, not for testing divergence?
 
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How about the divergence test? :-p
 
You'll have to be more specific. The convergence of what? The sequence of terms, a_n=i^n, the series, \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}i^n, or some sequence or series that just has i^n as one term? I can tell you right now, the first two diverge.
 
Hurkyl said:
How about the divergence test? :-p

The divergence test doesn't work for indeterminant forms.
 
LeonhardEuler said:
You'll have to be more specific. The convergence of what? The sequence of terms, a_n=i^n, the series, \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}i^n, or some sequence or series that just has i^n as one term? I can tell you right now, the first two diverge.


I must prove that \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}i^n diverges.

Or rather, I must prove wheter or not its convergent of divergent. I know its divergent, but I still have to prove it.
 
Agnostic said:
The divergence test doesn't work for indeterminant forms.
i^n is not an indeterminant form.
 
The divergence test doesn't work for indeterminant forms.

There isn't an indeterminant form involved. :-p
 
Agnostic said:
I must prove that \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}i^n diverges.

Or rather, I must prove wheter or not its convergent of divergent. I know its divergent, but I still have to prove it.
Oh, that's simple. Use the divergence test as Hurkyl suggested. Do the terms in the series approach zero as n approaches infinty?
 
The limit of i^n as n goes to infinity doesn't have a solution does it?
 
  • #10
Agnostic said:
The limit of i^n as n goes to infinity doesn't have a solution does it?
Right, exactly!
 
  • #11
LeonhardEuler said:
Oh, that's simple. Use the divergence test as Hurkyl suggested. Do the terms in the series approach zero as n approaches infinty?

No, they alternate ... i,-1,-i,1,i,-1,...
 
  • #12
LeonhardEuler said:
Right, exactly!

But that is not the same as saying indeterminant form?
 
  • #13
Agnostic said:
No, they alternate ... i,-1,-i,1,i,-1,...
So the limit doesn't exist. Then can it equal zero?
 
  • #14
Agnostic said:
But that is not the same as saying indeterminant form?
No, an indeterminant form is something like \frac{0}{0}, or \frac{\infty}{\infty}, or 1^{\infty}. A non-existant limit is just a non-existant limit.
 
  • #15
But that is not the same as saying indeterminant form?

An indeterminate form is a "limit form" for which we don't have enough information to say what the limit really is, or if it exists. For example, \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x/x has the indeterminate form 0/0.
 
  • #16
Its usually always silly mistakes :D
Thanks a lot guys..
 

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