How Does Hooke's Law Relate to Angular Frequency?

AI Thread Summary
Hooke's Law relates to angular frequency through the differential equation x'' + (k/m)x = 0, where the solution x = x_0 cos(ωt + φ) indicates that ω = √(k/m). To show this, one can differentiate the solution twice and substitute it back into the original equation, confirming that ω emerges naturally. The discussion highlights that while the original equation does not explicitly include ω, it can be derived through standard substitutions. Understanding ω as the angular frequency clarifies its role in the oscillatory motion described by the equation. This approach demonstrates the mathematical and physical significance of the relationship between k, m, and ω.
misogynisticfeminist
Messages
370
Reaction score
0
hmm ok, i was watching the MIT opencourseware video on oscillations and there was a part where it was mentioned that,

the diff. eq. x''+ \frac {k}{m} x = 0 has solution x= x_0 cos (\omega t + \phi) if and only if \omega= \sqrt{\frac {k}{m}}

how do i show that omega is the sqaureoot of k over m? thanks alot.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Differentiate the solution twice with respect to time and substitute it back into the differential equation - then tell us what you discovered! :)
 
ohhh, i see, it can be gotten by verifying the solution. I thought we needed to do something to hooke's law, but verifying the solution works great too.

: )

edit: a tinge of doubt crosses my mind though. When we solve the original differential equation, we get the solution in terms of k, m and x and no omega. While verifying the solution works when the solution is given, and we see that \omega= \sqrt{\frac {k}{m}}. How do we know that \omega= \sqrt{\frac {k}{m}} when we are solving it?
 
Last edited:
If you just substitute x = x_0 \cos(\omega t - \phi) into the differential equation the required value of \omega will jump out at you!
 
misogynisticfeminist said:
edit: a tinge of doubt crosses my mind though. When we solve the original differential equation, we get the solution in terms of k, m and x and no omega. While verifying the solution works when the solution is given, and we see that \omega= \sqrt{\frac {k}{m}}. How do we know that \omega= \sqrt{\frac {k}{m}} when we are solving it?

In this case, \omega is referring to the angular frequency, which is the multiplicative factor in front of the independent variable in the sine or cosine function. It's just a standard substitution that they probably just didn't bother to define.
 
try the following:

in your original ODE, consider \omega ^2[\itex] just as a mathematically sound way to express the positiveness of the factor \frac{k}{m} [\itex]. After all the calculations you will realize that this choice has proven itself useful and physically meaningful.
 
Thread 'Question about pressure of a liquid'
I am looking at pressure in liquids and I am testing my idea. The vertical tube is 100m, the contraption is filled with water. The vertical tube is very thin(maybe 1mm^2 cross section). The area of the base is ~100m^2. Will he top half be launched in the air if suddenly it cracked?- assuming its light enough. I want to test my idea that if I had a thin long ruber tube that I lifted up, then the pressure at "red lines" will be high and that the $force = pressure * area$ would be massive...
I feel it should be solvable we just need to find a perfect pattern, and there will be a general pattern since the forces acting are based on a single function, so..... you can't actually say it is unsolvable right? Cause imaging 3 bodies actually existed somwhere in this universe then nature isn't gonna wait till we predict it! And yea I have checked in many places that tiny changes cause large changes so it becomes chaos........ but still I just can't accept that it is impossible to solve...
Back
Top