How Is Equation (3.102) Derived in Electromagnetism?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the derivation of equation (3.102) in the context of electromagnetism, specifically focusing on the relationship between the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) and the vector potential \(\vec{A}\). Participants explore the mathematical steps involved in arriving at this equation, including the application of the curl operator and gauge choices.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests taking the curl of \(\vec{A}\) to verify if it yields \(\vec{B}\), indicating that this approach could validate the derivation.
  • Another participant discusses the necessary condition for \(\vec{B}\) to be the curl of a vector field, noting that \(\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{B} = 0\) must hold true.
  • The concept of gauge choice is introduced, with a specific mention of the axial gauge where \(A_x = 0\) and the relationship \(\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A} = \vec{B}\) is established.
  • Mathematical expressions are provided to illustrate how components of \(\vec{B}\) relate to integrals of components of \(\vec{A}\), with specific integrals outlined for \(A_y\) and \(A_z\).
  • Participants engage in checking and validating each other's mathematical workings, indicating a collaborative effort to understand the derivation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While participants engage in a detailed exploration of the derivation, there is no explicit consensus on the interpretation of all steps involved. The discussion remains open to interpretation and further clarification.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes complex mathematical expressions and assumptions regarding the gauge choice, which may not be fully resolved or universally accepted among participants.

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https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/22024273/vectorpotential.png

In the above passage, can someone explain to me where (3.102) comes from?
 
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Take the curl of A and see if it yields B ... as long as it works it proves their contention.

How did they arrive at it? If I were attempting this I would take the curl of a general expression and then work out which parts are needed/not needed ... and this is apparently what is left!
 
Obviously a necessary condition for \vec{B} to be the curl of a vector field is
\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{B}=0.
Then the vector potential is only determined up to the gradient of a scalar field. Thus one can impose one additional condition ("choice of a gauge"). In this case an axial gauge is chosen, i.e.,
\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A}=\vec{B}, \quad A_x=0.
Then we have in Cartesian coordinates
B_x=\partial_y A_z-\partial_z A_y, \quad B_y=-\partial_x A_z, \quad B_z=\partial_x A_y.
From the last equation we get
A_y=\int_{x_0}^{x} \mathrm{d} x' B_z(x',y,z)+\tilde{A}_y(y,z)
and from the 2nd equation
A_z=-\int_{x_0}^x \mathrm{d} x' B_y(x',y,z) + \tilde{A}_z(y,z).
The first equation now reads
B_x(x,y,z)=-\int_{x_0}^{x} \mathrm{d} x' [\partial_y B_y(x',y,z)+\partial_z B_z(x',y,z)]+\partial_y \tilde{A}_z(y,z)-\partial_z \tilde{A}_y(y,z).
Now from \vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{B}=0 we find
B_x(x,y,z)=B_x(x,y,z)-B_x(x_0,y,z) +\partial_y \tilde{A}_z(y,z)-\partial_z \tilde{A}_y(y,z)
or
B_x(x_0,y,z)=\partial_y \tilde{A}_z(y,z)-\partial_z \tilde{A}_y(y,z).
This equation we can satisfy by setting
\tilde{A}_y=0, \quad \tilde{A}_z(y,z)=\int_{y_0}^{y} \mathrm{d}y' B_x(x_0,y',z).
Putting all together we get
A_x=0, \quad A_y=\int_{x_0}^{x} \mathrm{d} x' B_z(x',y,z), \quad A_z=\int_{y_0}^{y} \mathrm{d}y' B_x(x_0,y',z)-\int_{x_0}^x \mathrm{d} x' B_y(x',y,z).
This is what's claimed in the OP.
 
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Thank you for the replies.
Makes sense now.
Thanks for taking the time to go through all the working as well vanhees, was helpful in checking my own working through it.
 

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