How Is Heat Generated from Friction in Physics Problems?

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Heat is generated from friction when a metal block is dragged on a rough surface, with the rate of heat generation equating to the power lost due to friction. The power can be calculated using the formula P = Force x velocity, where the force is derived from the coefficient of kinetic friction and the normal force. The initial approach of using kinetic energy over time is incorrect because it assumes a constant rate of energy loss, which does not apply as the block decelerates. The correct expression for power loss involves the net force acting on the block multiplied by its velocity. Understanding this relationship clarifies how friction converts kinetic energy into heat.
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Homework Statement


A metal block of mass 10 kg is dragged on a rough horizontal surface with a constant speed of 5 m/s. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the road is 0.4, then the rate of generation of heat is. take g=10 m/s^2?

Homework Equations


F=ma
Frictional force=μN

The Attempt at a Solution


So I thought, the heat generated is the lost kinetic energy per second (if we stop applying the force), so I calculated the time it takes for the block to reach 0 velocity, the retardation is (0.4 x 100)/10 from v=u+at I got time=5/4 seconds. the rate should be total KE/time but this is incorrect, can someone give an intuitive explanation on how to solve this? Thank you
 
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Rate of heat generation is really power. Can you relate power and force and velocity?
 
kuruman said:
Rate of heat generation is really power. Can you relate power and force and velocity?
Power is Force x velocity. Is this the energy we're constantly providing to keep it moving at 5 m/s?
 
If you use the pulling force in the expression, it is the power generated by that force. If you use the force of friction, it is the power lost to friction.
 
kuruman said:
If you use the pulling force in the expression, it is the power generated by that force. If you use the force of friction, it is the power lost to friction.
Ok, I understand this. Why is my approach wrong though?
 
Krushnaraj Pandya said:
Ok, I understand this. Why is my approach wrong though?
It is wrong because when you say that P = KE/t, you are assuming that in equal times you are losing equal amounts of energy. That is, you are assuming that from t = 0 to t = 1 s you are losing the same amount of KE as from t = 1 s to t = 2 s. This is not the case when the block loses kinetic energy until it stops. The correct expression for the power loss is ##P=\frac{d(KE)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\left( \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \right)=m v \frac{dv}{dt}=mav = F_{net}v.##
 
kuruman said:
It is wrong because when you say that P = KE/t, you are assuming that in equal times you are losing equal amounts of energy. That is, you are assuming that from t = 0 to t = 1 s you are losing the same amount of KE as from t = 1 s to t = 2 s. This is not the case when the block loses kinetic energy until it stops. The correct expression for the power loss is ##P=\frac{d(KE)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\left( \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \right)=m v \frac{dv}{dt}=mav = F_{net}v.##
Ah, ok! Thank you very much
 
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