yogi said:
Ok - some interesting comments - let me go back Jesse to the thought that I proposed a few weeks ago - and here is where I stand. We start with A and B at rest in an inertial frame - They can be adjacent - it doesn' matter - they are identical clocks. B Starts out North and then swings East, then South in a large half circle passing Altair and then continues South then bends West and returns to A completing a giant circle. As stated, this is a version of the twin paradox - but there is not abrupt turn around - whatever is going on with B's clock is a continuous happening - the circular path taken by B is continuous and B always travels at a velocity v along the tangent to the circle.
Well, in a frame where A is not at rest, B's speed will be constantly changing as he moves around the circle, and so the speed his clock runs in this frame will be constantly changing as well, there will be times when his clock is actually running faster than A's. Of course all frames will get the same answer as to what A and B's clocks will read at the moment they reunite.
yogi said:
Now I think everyone will agree that when B returns to A, B's clock reads less (there is a real objective difference between the time logged on B's clock and the longer time accumulated on A's clock) - The question is when and where does the difference occur - The circular path eliminates those explanations that are based upon shifting slopes of world lines, the lost time at turn around, abruptly shifting hyperplanes and the turn around acceleration as being a factor.
The path integral approach works fine as an explanation here. And like I said in another post, all other explanations are really derivative of the path integral approach. For example, as I said in another post, when people use the explanation that the twin who accelerates is the one who'll be younger, this can be thought of as a consequence of the fact that any non-straight path between two points in spacetime will always have a shorter path integral than a straight (non-accelerating) path between them. Someone also mentioned the "triangle paradox", which is the astonishing fact is that a person walking along the hypotenuse of a right triangle will always walk a shorter distance than the person who walks along the other two edges, despite the fact that they start at the same point and end at the same point. You could explain this by integrating the length of each person's path
or just by saying that a straight path is always the shortest one, therefore the person who turned around will always walk a greater length. Both answers are equally correct.
yogi said:
So what do we have - Einstein tells us the clocks will no longer be in sync and that the one which took the trip will lag the other by (1/2)t(v/c)^2 (where t is the total time of the trip) Would you argue that B actually has to reach A to experience a real time difference - what if B pulls up in San Fancisco instead of Los Angles where A is waiting - there is still the same time difference essentially
If there are two clocks in San Francisco and Los Angeles which are in sync in their mutual rest frame, then the most that any other frame can see them out-of-sync by is x/c, where x is the distance between San Fran. and LA in their own rest frame. So, I think this means the maximum disagreement you could have about the amount that A and B are out-of-sync would be 2x/c. But yes, I would say this means there is not a single objective time difference between A and B unless they actually meet at the same location, if they don't then I'd say you can only talk about a time difference of t ± x/c, where t is the time difference in the San Francisco/Los Angeles rest frame. But the actual amount that you add or subtract from t will depend on which inertial frame you're using, and Einstein would say that any inertial frame is equally valid.
yogi said:
what I am saying and what I have always said, is that the situation is proportional - B's clock at every point in the journey is falling proportionately behind A's clock
No, that's not true. In a frame where A is in motion, there will be moments along B's journey where B's velocity in this frame is less than A's, agreed? If so, then the formulas of relativity clearly show that in this frame, it would be A's clock that is ticking slower at that moment.
yogi said:
Einstein tells us this in no uncertain terms - there is no ambiguity in what Einstein says in Part 4 of his 1905 paper -
I just looked over section 4 of the
paper, I saw him correctly state that the clock that went in the circle would be behind by (1/2)tv^2/c^2 when they reunited, but nowhere did I see anything about B's clock falling behind A's clock at the same rate throughout the journey. If you think he did, please post the quote you're thinking of.
yogi said:
Where the confusion arises is because of the tendency to hark back to the fact that two clocks in motion always see the other guys clock running slow - that is true - but of course we know that both cannot be running slow relative to the other - the difference in the physical aging experiments is that A's frame and B's frame are not the same - B is moving along a path in A's frame that comprises a real length (yes Jesse I said real - same term Einstein used - we now call it a proper length).
But a path isn't an object, it can't have a proper length since it doesn't have a rest frame.
yogi said:
So yes - I do assert that once two clocks are brought to sync in one inertial frame, the clock which is then moved at velocity v relative thereto will always log less time.
But what do you mean by "log less time"? I would certainly agree that when the clock that is accelerated meets up with the other one, it will be behind it. But do you agree that in an inertial frame where both clocks start out in motion, and the clock that accelerates actually decreases in velocity, then before it accelerates it will start out significantly behind the other clock, and then it will tick
faster after it acelerates, just not by enough to catch up with the other clock when they meet?
yogi said:
And I also claim, based upon the above, that, both A's clock and B's clock will read half as much when B passes Altair
But to ask what A's clock reads "when B passes Altair" depends on your definition of simultaneity. Do you agree that according to Einstein, no inertial frame's definition of simultaneity is preferred over any other's? Do you agree that in a frame where B is at rest while A and Altair are in motion, it would be A's clock that's behind B's clock at the moment B passes Altair?