How to Anti-differentiate 1/sin(x) + cos(x)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the anti-derivative of the expression 1/(sin(x) + cos(x)). Participants are exploring the integration of trigonometric functions, specifically focusing on the relationship between the cosecant function and the given expression.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the clarity of the original problem statement, noting that the use of parentheses is crucial for correct interpretation. There are discussions about the integration techniques, including the substitution method and the use of known anti-derivatives.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some offering insights into potential methods for integration. There is recognition of the importance of clear expression in mathematical problems, and while some guidance has been provided, no consensus on a specific solution has been reached.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the need for clarity in mathematical notation, as misunderstandings arose from the original phrasing of the problem. Participants are also considering the implications of using the anti-derivative of the cosecant function in their approaches.

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Homework Statement



Please find the anti-derivative of 1/sin(x) + cos(x) dx


Homework Equations



csc(x)dx = -ln[csc(x) + cot(x)] + C


Thanks. Been at it for a while now.
 
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I am confused, you are given the primitive of the cosecant and you do not know how to integrate the cosecant+ the cosine? Or do you need to derive the primitive for the cosecant as well?
 
Cyosis said:
I am confused, you are given the primitive of the cosecant and you do not know how to integrate the cosecant+ the cosine? Or do you need to derive the primitive for the cosecant as well?

Sorry it was my mistake. Its 1 over the sin and cos
 
niravana21 said:
Sorry it was my mistake. Its 1 over the sin and cos
Or in other words, the integrand is 1/(sin(x) + cos(x)).

Parentheses are especially important when you're writing algebraic expressions on what is essentially a single line.

By writing 1/sin(x) + cos(x), most people would correctly interpret this as
[tex]\frac{1}{sin(x)} + cos(x)[/tex]
even though that's not what you intended.
 
Mark44 said:
Or in other words, the integrand is 1/(sin(x) + cos(x)).

Parentheses are especially important when you're writing algebraic expressions on what is essentially a single line.

By writing 1/sin(x) + cos(x), most people would correctly interpret this as
[tex]\frac{1}{sin(x)} + cos(x)[/tex]
even though that's not what you intended.

yes i get it, but this has in no way helped me answer the question.
 
niravana21 said:
yes i get it, but this has in no way helped me answer the question.

Did you miss my response in post 3?
 
niravana21 said:
yes i get it, but this has in no way helped me answer the question.

But it made it harder for people on this forum to understand exactly what you were asking. The way you wrote it confused Cyosis, although Dick was able to translate what you wrote into what the problem actually was. My post was aimed at getting you to realize the importance of writing your problems so that people can easily understand them.
 
No, I read your post, but the questions asks to use the anti-derivative of csc(x) in order to solve the problem. :(

Any ideas?
 
  • #10
Mark44 said:
But it made it harder for people on this forum to understand exactly what you were asking. The way you wrote it confused Cyosis, although Dick was able to translate what you wrote into what the problem actually was. My post was aimed at getting you to realize the importance of writing your problems so that people can easily understand them.

yes i realized that, so i quickly posted that it is 1 over the sin and cos. So do you have any ideas on solving that with the anti-deriv of csc(x)?
 
  • #11
sin(x+y) = sin(x)cos(y) + cos(x)sin(y)

So, putting y = pi/4 yields:

sin(x)+cos(x) = sqrt(2) sin(x+pi/4)

This means that you need to integrate 1/sin(x +pi/4) and you are already given the answer to that which you could also have derived very easily like this:

1/sin(x) = [sin^2(x/2) + cos^2(x/2)]/[2 sin(x/2)cos(x/2)] =

1/2 tan(x/2) + 1/2 cot(x/2) which is trivial to integrate.
 
  • #12
niravana21 said:
yes i realized that, so i quickly posted that it is 1 over the sin and cos.

Inasmuch as you are studying calculus, it is to your benefit to learn how to express simple mathematical expressions clearly. In particular "1 over the sin and cos" is much less clear than "1 over the sum of the sine and cosine functions" or in symbols, 1/(sin(x) + cos(x)). The operation in the denominator is addition, not "and."
 

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