HW Check: Prove that the sequence {a_n} converges to 1/2

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the convergence of the sequence {a_n} defined by a_n=\frac{n}{2n+\sqrt{n}} to \frac{1}{2} as n approaches infinity, without using limit rules from a specified section. Participants are examining the formal definition of convergence in the context of sequences.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to construct a proof using the definition of convergence, focusing on the manipulation of the sequence to show that it meets the epsilon condition. Some participants question the validity of certain substitutions and the clarity of the reasoning behind them.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on the original poster's approach. Some guidance has been offered regarding the manipulation of terms and the reasoning behind substitutions, but no consensus has been reached on the necessity of including certain explanations in the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the constraints of not using specific limit rules and the implications of the epsilon-delta definition in their proofs. There is also mention of the potential ambiguity in transforming between epsilon and n, which is acknowledged but not resolved.

ironspud
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Hi,

Just hoping someone could check my work and point out any errors, if any.

Homework Statement



Consider the sequence {[itex]a_n[/itex]} defined by [itex]a_n=\frac{n}{2n+\sqrt{n}}[/itex]. Prove that [itex]\lim_{x\to\infty}a_n=\frac{1}{2}[/itex]. (Do NOT use any of the "limit rules" from Section 2.2.)

Homework Equations



A sequence [itex]a_n[/itex] is said to converge to a real number A iff for each [itex]\epsilon>0[/itex] there exists a positive integer [itex]n^*[/itex] such that [itex]\lvert a_n-A\rvert<\epsilon[/itex] for all [itex]n\geq n^*[/itex].

The Attempt at a Solution



Proof:

Let [itex]\epsilon>0[/itex].

Let [itex]n^*\in\mathbb{N}[/itex] such that [itex]n^*>[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]^2[/itex].

If [itex]n\geq n^*[/itex], then

[itex]\lvert a_n-A\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{n}{2n+\sqrt{n}}-\frac{1}{2}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{2n-2n-\sqrt{n}}{2(2n+\sqrt{n})}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-\sqrt{n}}{2(2n+\sqrt{n})}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-n}{\sqrt{n}[2(2n+\sqrt{n})]}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-n}{\sqrt{n}(4n+2\sqrt{n})}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-n}{4n\sqrt{n}+2n}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-n}{2n(2\sqrt{n}+1)}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-1}{2(2\sqrt{n}+1)}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\frac{1}{2(2\sqrt{n}+1)}[/itex]

[itex]\leq\frac{1}{2\sqrt{n}+1}[/itex]

[itex]<\frac{1}{2\sqrt{[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]^2}+1}[/itex]

[itex]=\frac{1}{2\lvert[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]\rvert+1}[/itex]

[itex]=\frac{1}{2[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]+1}[/itex]

[itex]=\frac{1}{(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)+1}[/itex]

[itex]=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\epsilon}}[/itex]

[itex]=\epsilon[/itex].
 
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ironspud said:
...

[itex]\lvert a_n-A\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{n}{2n+\sqrt{n}}-\frac{1}{2}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{2n-2n-\sqrt{n}}{2(2n+\sqrt{n})}\rvert[/itex]

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-\sqrt{n}}{2(2n+\sqrt{n})}\rvert[/itex]

You could have gotten here faster by dividing through by [itex]\sqrt{n}[/itex]...

[itex]=\lvert\frac{-1}{2(2\sqrt{n}+1)}\rvert[/itex] ...

It looks all right to me. I am presuming that you come up with the "mysterious substitution" [itex]\sqrt{[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]^2}[/itex] for [itex]\sqrt{n}[/itex] by knowing that you're supposed to end up at "epsilon"...
 
Last edited:
Thanks dynamicsolo.

And, yeah, I get the substitution by knowing [itex]\frac{1}{2\sqrt{n^*}+1}<\epsilon[/itex]. Solving for epsilon, [itex][\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]^2<n^*[/itex]. And since [itex]n\geq n^*>[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]^2[/itex], then [itex]\frac{1}{2\sqrt{n}+1}<\frac{1}{2\sqrt{[\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-1)]^2}+1}[/itex].
 
That's OK -- everyone does that in these epsilon-delta proofs. Your choice should be acceptable because [itex]\epsilon(n) = \frac{1}{1 + 2\sqrt{n}}[/itex] is one-to-one, so there is no ambiguity in transforming between epsilon and n , and the limit is zero as n goes to infinity.
 
Yeah, I figured there was no problem in the substitution, though, maybe I should have provided the reasoning behind it in the proof. Oh well.

Anyway, thanks again.
 

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