Hydrostatics and Cylindrical Tank

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the force exerted by the bottom 1 ft band of water in a cylindrical tank filled to the brim. There is confusion about whether to integrate from 0 to 1 or from 49 to 50, as both methods yield different results. The importance of correctly accounting for the pressure from the water above the 1 ft band is emphasized, as it contributes to the total force. Concerns are raised about the units and the validity of the expressions used in the calculations. Ultimately, the pressure from the entire height of water above the bottom 1 ft must be considered, regardless of direct contact.
Shoelace Thm.
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Homework Statement


I fill a cylindrical tank of length 50 ft and diameter 90 ft with water (to the brim). What is the force the bottom 1 ft band of water exerts on the lining?


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


My main doubt is whether i should integrate from 0 to 1 and add the weight of the water above or simply integrate from 49 to 50 and be done. Both yield significantly different results.
 
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Depends on what variable you integrating with respect to. Is it distance from the top or distance from the bottom? Show your setup.
 
I have one representation being \vec{F} = 62.4 * 2 * \pi*45 \int^1_0 x\,dx + \pi*45^2*49, where dx is a differential movement from the top of the 1 ft band to the base of the tank, and the other being \vec{F} = 62.4 * 2 * \pi*45 \int^{50}_{49} x\,dx, where dx represents the same. Both expressions take into account the fact that the force is greater because of there being water above, but nevertheless yield significantly different results.
 
Shoelace Thm. said:
I have one representation being \vec{F} = 62.4 * 2 * \pi*45 \int^1_0 x\,dx + \pi*45^2*49, where dx is a differential movement from the top of the 1 ft band to the base of the tank, and the other being \vec{F} = 62.4 * 2 * \pi*45 \int^{50}_{49} x\,dx, where dx represents the same. Both expressions take into account the fact that the force is greater because of there being water above, but nevertheless yield significantly different results.

The pi*45^2*49 you are adding in the first case has nothing to do with the force exerted by the first 49 feet of water. What should it be? If you'd put units on things, you'd see it doesn't even have correct units.
 
Would 62.4lbs/ft^3*\pi*45^2ft^2*49ft be correct?
 
And if so the answers are still inconsistent.
 
You want to add the force due to the pressure of the first 49 feet of water on the area around the side of the bottom foot of the pool. What would that be?
 
I can't think of an expression because the 49 ft of water in question is not even in contact with the bottom 1 ft of the tank, in which case I can't find a reasonable way to incorporate the fact that the bottom 1 ft of water is "submerged" beneath 49 ft of water.
 
Shoelace Thm. said:
I can't think of an expression because the 49 ft of water in question is not even in contact with the bottom 1 ft of the tank, in which case I can't find a reasonable way to incorporate the fact that the bottom 1 ft of water is "submerged" beneath 49 ft of water.

The pressure of the 49 ft of water adds to the pressure of the last foot of water. It doesn't have to be in direct contact. What's wrong with doing it with your 49 to 50 integral?
 
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