Impulse Response for a 2nd Order Diffy Q

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The discussion focuses on finding the impulse response for the differential equation y'' + 6y' + 4y = x(t). The eigenvalues were determined to be -0.764 and -5.24, leading to the assumed unit response form h(t) = k_1e^{-0.764t} + k_2e^{-5.24t}. The challenge arises in integrating the equation to find k_1 and k_2, particularly in understanding why certain integrals evaluate to zero. The conclusion highlights that both the user’s and the solutions manual's approaches yield the same correct answer, emphasizing the continuity of h(t) at t=0 as crucial for deriving the equations. This continuity ensures that h(0+) equals h(0-), which aids in solving for the coefficients.
xcvxcvvc
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y'' + 6y' + 4y = x(t)
I found the eigenvalues to be -.764 and -5.24, no problems here. Next, since the order of the response is greater than the order of the excitation, I assumed the unit response took the form:

h(t) = k_1e^{-.764t} + k_2e^{-5.24t}

So now I must find the values for k_1 and k_2. If I integrate both sides from -0 to +0, I should find one equation that will help in this endeavor. This is where I run into some problems.

\int\limits_{-0}^{+0}h''(t)\, dx + 6\int\limits_{-0}^{+0}h'(t)\, dx + 4\int\limits_{-0}^{+0}h(t)\, dx = \int\limits_{-0}^{+0}\delta(t)\, dx

which becomes:

h'(+0) - h'(-0) + 6[h(+0) - h(-0)] + 4\int\limits_{-0}^{+0}h(t)\, dx = u(+0) - u(-0)

Now, h(t) has no impulse in it. Therefore, an integral from -0 to +0 of h(t) = 0. Also, since the only excitation is the impulse, occurring at t = 0, and this system is causal, all h(t) and its derivatives evaluated at -0 evaluate to zero. Further, a step function at -0 is zero and at +0 is 1:

h'(+0) + 6h(+0) = 1

I then substitute in h'(+0) and 6h(+0):

h'(+0) + 6h(+0) = -.764K_1 - 5.24K_2 + 6k_1 + 6K_2 = 1

The problem is that the first equation generated in the solutions does not have the additional 6k_1 and 6K_2. Can someone explain to me why 6\int\limits_{-0}^{+0}h'(t)\, dx evaluates to zero?

I've completed the problem, and some how got the same(right) answer? How can this be? When I solved these two systems of equations (the first, what I derived and the second what the solutions manual derived) i got the same answer.
5.236k_1 + .760k_2 = 1
k_1 + k_2 = 0

theirs:
-.760k_1 - 5.24k_2 = 1
k_1 + k_2 = 0
 
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xcvxcvvc said:
h'(+0) - h'(-0) + 6[h(+0) - h(-0)] + 4\int\limits_{-0}^{+0}h(t)\, dx = u(+0) - u(-0)
The RHS is finite, so you need h'(0+) to also be finite. For the derivative h'(0+) to exist, h(t) has to be continuous at t=0, so you know that h(0+)=h(0-).

You probably used this fact to say that h(0+)=0, which gave you your second equation k1+k2=0.
 

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