- 665

- 24

By [5.52] and [5.53], we have ##\psi(x+a)=e^{iK_1a}c_1\psi_1(x)+e^{iK_2a}c_2\psi_2(x)##. But to prove [5.49], we need ##K_1=K_2##. That means all the eigenvalues of the "displacement" operator D have to be the same. But why is it so?

Reference: Intro to QM, David J Griffiths, p224