Calculating Inelastic Collision Force: Ball A and B at 1 m/s in Exterior Space

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In summary, an inelastic collision between two spheres results in an infinite force that is short-lived.
  • #1
misster y
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You have an ideal esferic ball A of 1 Kg in rest and another equal ball B of 1 Kg going to A (by an imaginary axe between centers) at 1 m/s. (Considering them in exterior space/vacuum with no frictions nor gravity)
What is the force produced to B (by A)(and viceversa) when the balls hits inelastically? If it is not infinit, what is the valor in Newtons?
(remember, inelastically, with no ball deformation)
 
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  • #2
I think what you are asking is: If two perfect spheres collide inelastically but with no deformation, what force will they exert on each other during the collision? Realize that an inelastic collsion with no deformation is an impossible condition. If there is no deformation of the spheres, the collision will take 0 time and the force will be infinite. That should tell you that this thought experiment is not physically realistic! :smile:
 
  • #3
how could two spheres have an elastic collision without being deformed momentarily
 
  • #4
You may have a wrong idea about what "elastic" and "inelastic" collisions are. In any case, the crucial piece of information, that you have left out, is the time the collision takes.
 
  • #5
oldunion said:
how could two spheres have an elastic collision without being deformed momentarily
They can't.
 
  • #6
Doc Al said:
They can't.

But they can in a thought experiemnt.

The solution is to use something called a "delta function" for the forces.

This is a function that is infinite in intensity but is infinitelay narrow like
a needle. As long as you use it under an integral, it is a valid mathematical
tool. When you integrate the forces in time, you will get instantaneous
changes in momentum that are of the correct magnitude.
 
  • #7
so if you made a material that would not deflect at all, what would happen if you hit that material against another sphere made of that same material.
 
  • #8
so if you made a material that would not deflect at all, what would happen if you hit that material against another sphere made of that same material.

Short answer: you can't; solids are held together by electrostatic forces between molecules (nothing 'rigid'), so there is always some sort of 'sponginess' to them - they can deform, or propagate waves.

If you try to simulate it mathematically, you would (as antiphon pointed out) use a discontinuous dirac delta function to represent the force - you'd get an effective 'infinite' force for an 'inifinitely short' period of time (mathematicians are cringing as I say this), resulting in instantaneous, finite change of momentum for both spheres: the "perfectally inelastic collision" from introductory physics. I stress that this does not happen in the real world, rigid bodies are only a convenient approximation.

[tex]\delta[/tex]-function links from MathWorld:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DeltaSequence.html
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DeltaFunction.html
 
  • #9
Doc Al said:
I think what you are asking is: If two perfect spheres collide inelastically but with no deformation, what force will they exert on each other during the collision? Realize that an inelastic collsion with no deformation is an impossible condition. If there is no deformation of the spheres, the collision will take 0 time and the force will be infinite. That should tell you that this thought experiment is not physically realistic! :smile:

What about protons. If they are accelerated to sufficiently high energies such that they collide and then rebound instead of fusing, wouldn't that be a totally elastic collision.

Or any of the fundamental particles for that matter?
 
  • #10
Good point. I was referring to macroscopic objects (balls and spheres), not elementary particles. Sorry for not being clear.
 

1. What is "Infinit force at 1 m/s"?

"Infinit force at 1 m/s" is a theoretical concept in physics that describes the force exerted by an object that is moving at a constant velocity of 1 meter per second. It is often used in calculations and equations to represent a constant, unchanging force.

2. How is "Infinit force at 1 m/s" calculated?

The calculation for "Infinit force at 1 m/s" is simply the product of an object's mass and acceleration. Therefore, the formula is F = m x a, where F represents force, m represents mass, and a represents acceleration, which in this case is 1 m/s.

3. What is the significance of "Infinit force at 1 m/s"?

"Infinit force at 1 m/s" is often used in theoretical physics and engineering to simplify calculations and equations. It represents a constant and unchanging force, which can be useful in certain scenarios where a variable force is not needed.

4. Can "Infinit force at 1 m/s" be measured in real life?

No, "Infinit force at 1 m/s" is a theoretical concept and cannot be measured in real life. While we can measure forces in the real world, they are never truly infinite and are always subject to change.

5. How does "Infinit force at 1 m/s" relate to Newton's laws of motion?

According to Newton's second law of motion, the force exerted on an object is directly proportional to its mass and acceleration. Therefore, "Infinit force at 1 m/s" can be seen as an application of this law, where the acceleration is a constant 1 m/s and the force is represented by the product of mass and acceleration.

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