Are there any powers involved? I think you can take the log of the original function to rewrite the expression into a form where you can use L'Hospitals in a way that works.
Would it be infinite loops in regards to trigonometry? Give us an indication of the type of problem it is.
#4
darthxepher
56
0
The actual problem is lim x-->0+ (cot(x) - 1/x)
Do you think you could come up with a similar problem and help me with it so I can apply that to the original one? Sorry, I think this is making it overly difficult, but I would rather not cheat.
Mmm... yes that is quite a little toughy. But then again I haven't studied limits passed the high school level so I wouldn't be too sure.
I've tried something, maybe it's what you're looking for? Or even then it could be completely invalid so don't take this solution seriously.
I'll use a similar example of \lim_{x\to 0}\csc(x)-\cot(x)
If we let \lim_{x\to 0}\csc(x)-\cot(x)=k and manipulating the limit gives us \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\tan(x)-\sin(x)}{\sin(x)\cdot \tan(x)} which is the same as \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\tan(x)}{\sin(x)}\cdot \frac{1}{\tan(x)}-\frac{\sin(x)}{\tan(x)}\cdot \frac{1}{\sin(x)} and we know that...
edit: felt like I was giving away too much info - since it was the entire solution
Can you finish this off?
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#6
sakodo
21
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Regarding to your problem,
Make the denominator common, apply L'hopital's rule once and after applying a trig identity you should be able to cancel out a tan(x). The answer is pretty clear afterwards.
I will post a solution up if you need.
Regards,
sakodo
#7
Bohrok
867
0
After you combine the fractions in the original problem, you just need l'Hôpital's rule twice to get the limit; no infinite loop