- #1
Serene_Chaos
- 15
- 0
Ok I am not sure if this is where this thread should go, but anyway.
My question is this:
if we have an infinite series of numbers (or apples, or whatever) and we choose one at random, and then choose another at random, is there a chance that the two will be the same? I mean, is a 1 in infinity chance a chance at all?
My question is this:
if we have an infinite series of numbers (or apples, or whatever) and we choose one at random, and then choose another at random, is there a chance that the two will be the same? I mean, is a 1 in infinity chance a chance at all?