theorem states that for y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = r(x);(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

if y1 & y2 are random numbers such that y(m) = y1 and y'(m) = y2 then we can find a unique solution y for above differential equation....

in y'' - y'/x = 0;

both y = x^2 and y = 0 and y = k x^2 satisfy above with ..

y(0) = 0; and y'(0) = 0

then isn't this contradicts above theorem ,,

i have read that theorem is always true....

can someone enlighten me on this...?

thanks

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Homework Help: Initial condition problem

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**