- #1
the_kool_guy
- 37
- 0
theorem states that for y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = r(x);
if y1 & y2 are random numbers such that y(m) = y1 and y'(m) = y2 then we can find a unique solution y for above differential equation...
in y'' - y'/x = 0;
both y = x^2 and y = 0 and y = k x^2 satisfy above with ..
y(0) = 0; and y'(0) = 0
then isn't this contradicts above theorem ,,
i have read that theorem is always true...
can someone enlighten me on this...?
thanks
if y1 & y2 are random numbers such that y(m) = y1 and y'(m) = y2 then we can find a unique solution y for above differential equation...
in y'' - y'/x = 0;
both y = x^2 and y = 0 and y = k x^2 satisfy above with ..
y(0) = 0; and y'(0) = 0
then isn't this contradicts above theorem ,,
i have read that theorem is always true...
can someone enlighten me on this...?
thanks