The definite integral of ∫(x^2 √(a^2-x^2) dx from 0 to a
The Attempt at a Solution
So i don't need actual help with this problem. I got the answer, (π*a^4)/16 and I verified with the back of the book. The question I have is whether this problem merits an entire side of work? None of the examples my professor has given have ever been more than a few lines of work and this took me a whole side of a paper. Am I being inefficient or should I just expect this from now on?
Oh and sorry if my notation bad or if this should be on another thread, this is my first post lol .__.