Integral of e^iwt: Solving for \omega & t Values

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the integral of the function \( e^{i\omega t'} \) from 0 to \( t \), where \( \omega \) is a constant frequency. The original poster references a text that states the integral equals zero if \( \omega \) is not close to zero, and they are exploring the implications of this statement in relation to the oscillatory nature of the function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand why the integral is said to approach zero for large \( \omega \) and questions how to demonstrate this from their explicit evaluation of the integral. They consider the relationship between \( \omega \) and \( t \) in their reasoning.

Discussion Status

Some participants have pointed out a potential mistake in the original evaluation of the integral, suggesting an alternative expression. There is also a mention of the integral potentially behaving like a delta function for large \( t \), indicating ongoing exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the behavior of the integral based on the values of \( \omega \) and \( t \), as well as references to concepts from perturbation theory and particle location.

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For particle location, perturbation theory, etc, I see the following integral.

\LARGE \int_0^t { e^{i\omega t^'}}dt^'

Where \omega is some constant, or frequency. It says in my text that this is equal to 0 if \omega is not close to 0. My logic leads me to think that when \omega is large, the function oscillates many times between 0 and t, so it's integral is 0. However, when I carry out the integral explicitly, it is less clear.

\LARGE {\int_0^t {e^{i\omega t^'}}dt^'} = \frac{e^{i\omega t}}{i\omega} = \cos{\omega t} + i\sin{\omega t} - 1}

My question is, from the expression above, how to I show that this integral is 0 or close to zero? I think it depends on the values chosen for \omega and t. If t is greater than \omega, the integral should give a small number, and if t is close to \omega, the integral should give some non zero value. Any help would be appreciated.
 
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You made a mistake in evaluating the integral, it should be:

<br /> \LARGE {\int_0^t {e^{i\omega t^&#039;}}dt^&#039;} = \frac{1}{i\omega}\left(e^{i\omega t}-1\right)

Do you see why?
 
Tangent87 said:
You made a mistake in evaluating the integral, it should be:

<br /> \LARGE {\int_0^t {e^{i\omega t^&#039;}}dt^&#039;} = \frac{1}{i\omega}\left(e^{i\omega t}-1\right)

Do you see why?

Oops, forgot the denominator. I think that for large t, This integral becomes a delta function. Still working on it. Thanks.
 
fixed it

For particle location, perturbation theory, etc, I see the following integral.

\LARGE \int_0^t { e^{i\omega t^&#039;}}dt^&#039;

Where \omega is some constant, or frequency. It says in my text that this is equal to 0 if \omega is not close to 0. My logic leads me to think that when \omega is large, the function oscillates many times between 0 and t, so it's integral is 0. However, when I carry out the integral explicitly, it is less clear.

\LARGE {\int_0^t {e^{i\omega t^&#039;}}dt^&#039;} = e^{i\omega t}}{i\omega} = \frac {\cos{\omega t} + i\sin{\omega t} - 1

My question is, from the expression above, how to I show that this integral is 0 or close to zero? I think it depends on the values chosen for \omega and t. If t is greater than \omega, the integral should give a small number, and if t is close to \omega, the integral should give some non zero value. Any help would be appreciated.
 

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