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For particle location, perturbation theory, etc, I see the following integral.
[tex]\LARGE \int_0^t { e^{i\omega t^'}}dt^'[/tex]
Where [tex]\omega[/tex] is some constant, or frequency. It says in my text that this is equal to 0 if [tex]\omega[/tex] is not close to 0. My logic leads me to think that when [tex]\omega[/tex] is large, the function oscillates many times between 0 and t, so it's integral is 0. However, when I carry out the integral explicitly, it is less clear.
[tex]\LARGE {\int_0^t {e^{i\omega t^'}}dt^'} = \frac{e^{i\omega t}}{i\omega} = \cos{\omega t} + i\sin{\omega t} - 1}[/tex]
My question is, from the expression above, how to I show that this integral is 0 or close to zero? I think it depends on the values chosen for [tex]\omega[/tex] and t. If t is greater than [tex]\omega[/tex], the integral should give a small number, and if t is close to [tex]\omega[/tex], the integral should give some non zero value. Any help would be appreciated.
[tex]\LARGE \int_0^t { e^{i\omega t^'}}dt^'[/tex]
Where [tex]\omega[/tex] is some constant, or frequency. It says in my text that this is equal to 0 if [tex]\omega[/tex] is not close to 0. My logic leads me to think that when [tex]\omega[/tex] is large, the function oscillates many times between 0 and t, so it's integral is 0. However, when I carry out the integral explicitly, it is less clear.
[tex]\LARGE {\int_0^t {e^{i\omega t^'}}dt^'} = \frac{e^{i\omega t}}{i\omega} = \cos{\omega t} + i\sin{\omega t} - 1}[/tex]
My question is, from the expression above, how to I show that this integral is 0 or close to zero? I think it depends on the values chosen for [tex]\omega[/tex] and t. If t is greater than [tex]\omega[/tex], the integral should give a small number, and if t is close to [tex]\omega[/tex], the integral should give some non zero value. Any help would be appreciated.
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