Integrate over all values of a vector

  • Thread starter Thread starter Ionophore
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integrate Vector
AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around integrating a Dirac delta function over a two-dimensional vector space. The integral in question is expressed as the integral of the vector \overline{r} multiplied by the delta function, which restricts the integration to a specific magnitude L. Participants clarify that the integral can be approached as a double integral in Cartesian coordinates, where the components of the vector are integrated separately. There is also mention of converting to polar coordinates, which may simplify the integration process depending on the symmetry of the problem. Ultimately, the choice of coordinates should align with the physical principles involved in the integration.
Ionophore
Messages
17
Reaction score
0
Hi,

This is probably a really simple question, but I think that I am getting lost in notation. I want to integrate the following over all values of the (2-dimensional) vector \overline{r}:

<br /> \int_{\overline{r}} \frac{\delta(\abs{\overline{r}-L})}{2\pi L} \overline{r} d\overline{r}<br />

Basically, I want to integrate over all space. I think that the way to proceed is to convert to spherical polar coordinates but I'm not really sure how.

Edit
... delta is a dirac delta function. Sorry I didn't specify that before... maybe it's adding unnecessary complexity to my question. All i really want to know is how to deal with the \overline{r} out front.

Thank you,

-ben
 
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Your notation is also sloppy. For example, is L a vector, or did you mean
\delta(|\vec r| - L)
(the delta restricting the length of r?)

Also, should the integral produce again a vector v? Then basically, it says<br /> v_i = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\delta(r_1^2 + r_2^2 - L)}{2\pi L} r_i \, dr_1 dr_2<br />

where v_i denotes the i-th component.
 
Whoops, I'm sorry, I did mean magnitude:

<br /> \int_{\vec{r}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} \vec{r} d\vec{r}<br />

So, then, I am to understand that the above is really a double integral? What is meant by r_i, dr_1 and dr_2?
 
Ionophore said:
So, then, I am to understand that the above is really a double integral?
One of the basic theorems of multivariable calculus is that a single integral over a two-dimensional region can be computed by a double integral, each over one-dimensional regions. (And similarly for higher-dimensional regions) Surely you've done such things before? e.g. integrating density over a three-dimensional region to calculate mass?

I assume the same ideas would hold for multivariate distributions. (so that it would be valid with a Dirac delta distribution)

Incidentally, it looks much easier in Cartesian coordinates. By the way, did you mean \delta^2 instead of \delta?
 
So:

<br /> \int_{\vec{r}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} \vec{r} d\vec{r}<br /> <br /> = \int_{r_{x}} \int_{r_{y}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} r_{x}r_{y}dr_{x}dr_{y}<br />

Where r_{x} and r_{y} are the components of \vec{r}, and the integrations extend from -infinity -> infinity. I think I see.

Thanks everyone,

-ben

Edit:
And yes, of course, I have "done" this before, but that intermediate step is never shown, and so I just sort of memorized the general idea without really understanding it.
 
Almost. Note that there is a vector \vec r in the integrand. So either you will calculate a vector, that is:
\vec I = \int_{r_{x}} \int_{r_{y}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} \vec r dr_{x}dr_{y}
meaning
I_x = \int_{r_{x}} \int_{r_{y}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} r_x dr_{x}dr_{y}
and
I_y = \int_{r_{x}} \int_{r_{y}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} r_y dr_{x}dr_{y}.
Or, you are still forgetting some absolute value, and you actually mean
\int_{r_{x}} \int_{r_{y}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} |\vec r| dr_{x}dr_{y} = \int_{r_{x}} \int_{r_{y}} \frac{\delta(\abs{|\vec{r}|-L})}{2\pi L} \sqrt{r_x^2 + r_y^2} dr_{x}dr_{y}.

Also, since you mentioned something about polar coordinates: note that this is just one way to write the integral. This is what we usually do, because we are used to think about (x, y) Cartesian coordinates in the plane. However, you can also go to polar coordinates (r, \theta), then your integral would read (assuming you meant |r| instead of r-vector in the integrand):
\int_{-\infty}^\infty \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\delta(\abs{r-L})}{2\pi L} r \times r \, dr d\theta
(check that!). It looks different, but note that there are still two integrals which need to be done. Which coordinates you want to use is up to you, and is often dictated by some (usually physical) principle such as a symmetry; for example if you have rotation invariance (the integrand only depends on |\vec r| = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2} it is much easier to use polar coordinates), if your integrand is x^2 you would be better of using Cartesian coordinates.
 
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Thread 'Imaginary Pythagorus'
I posted this in the Lame Math thread, but it's got me thinking. Is there any validity to this? Or is it really just a mathematical trick? Naively, I see that i2 + plus 12 does equal zero2. But does this have a meaning? I know one can treat the imaginary number line as just another axis like the reals, but does that mean this does represent a triangle in the complex plane with a hypotenuse of length zero? Ibix offered a rendering of the diagram using what I assume is matrix* notation...
Back
Top