Integration on the way to Generating Functional for the free Dirac Field

Phileas.Fogg
Messages
32
Reaction score
0
Hi,
if I want to calculate the generating functional for the free Dirac Field, I have to evaluate a general Gaussian Grassmann integral. The Matrix in the argument of the exponential function is (according to a book) given by:

24114_dirac_field_generating.jpg


I don't understand the comment with the minus-sign and the integration by parts. I tried to do this integration, but didn't get the same result.

Could anyone tell me, how this integration works explicitly?

Or is there a mistake in the book and in the last line it should be +m (not -m) ?

Regards,
Mr. Fogg
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The minus sign comes from integration by parts:

\int d^4x\,[\partial^\mu f(x)]g(x) = -\int d^4x\,f(x)\partial^\mu g(x)

where we assume f(x)g(x) vanishes on the surface at infinity. In your case, f(x)=\delta^4(x'-x) and g(x)=\psi(x).
 
Hi,
thanks for your help!

Let me show you my calculation so far:

\int d^4 x' \overline{\psi}(x') \int d^4 x (-i \hbar \gamma \partial^{\mu} \delta^4(x' - x) - m \delta^4(x'-x)) \psi(x)

= \int d^4 x' \; \overline{\psi}(x') \int d^4 x (-i \hbar \gamma \partial^{\mu} \delta^4(x' - x) \psi(x) - m \delta^4(x'-x) \psi(x))

As you suggested

f(x) = \delta(x' - x) , g(x) = \psi(x)

= \int d^4 x' \; \overline{\psi}(x') \left( -i \hbar \gamma( \left[ \delta^4(x'-x) \psi(x) \right]_{-\infty}^{+\infty} - \int d^4 x \delta^4(x'-x) \partial \psi(x)) - m( \psi(x)^2 )_{-\infty}^{+\infty} + m \int d^4 x \psi(x) \delta^4(x'-x) \right)

Somewhere must be a mistake. Can you help me to find it?

Regards,
Mr. Fogg
 
Hi,

I am not sure what you did with the mass-term or why you did it. This term can be trivially integrated over x' due to the delta function:

-\int d^4x\int d^4x'\bar{\psi}(x)m\delta^4(x-x')\psi(x')=-\int d^4x \bar{\psi}(x) m \psi(x)

So you only need to make the partial integration on the derivative term. This you do precisely like Avodyne said, and what your first two terms in your last equation say. So take your last equation, discard the mass-terms, and then use the fact that \bar{\psi}(x)\psi(x)\rightarrow 0, \ x\rightarrow \pm \infty to drop the very first term. Finally the integration over the second term is again trivial and gives you

-\int d^4 x'\int d^4 x\bar{\psi}(x')\delta(x-x')(-i\hbar)\gamma\cdot \partial\psi(x)=\int d^4x \bar{\psi}(x) i\hbar\gamma\cdot \partial \psi(x)

Now adding the mass-term you get the advertised answer.

Hope this helps
 
Last edited:
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
According to recent podcast between Jacob Barandes and Sean Carroll, Barandes claims that putting a sensitive qubit near one of the slits of a double slit interference experiment is sufficient to break the interference pattern. Here are his words from the official transcript: Is that true? Caveats I see: The qubit is a quantum object, so if the particle was in a superposition of up and down, the qubit can be in a superposition too. Measuring the qubit in an orthogonal direction might...
Back
Top