Really? Are you sure? How would you go about proving that statement? What kinds of particles are you talking about? For example, do you think your statement is true for photons?
One important aspect of QM that you may be missing by talking about "probability waves" is phase. In general, probability distributions are obtained by taking the square modulus of the wavefunction, thereby destroying all information about the complex phase of the underlying wavefunction. Since it is phase relationships between wavefunctions that are responsible for determining interference, you can't really get interference between "probability waves", given that definition. However, according to the Born interpretation, the significance of the wavefunction is that it is a "probability amplitude", so if you are talking about the *wavefunction* when you say "probability wave", then yes, you can still get interference, but I would strongly suggest that you drop the terminology of "probability wave" and just say wavefunction instead.