Internal Symmetries (Prove Lagrangian is invariant)

In summary, the conversation discusses proving invariance for the Lagrangian in a system involving a symmetric, real, and positive matrix M and internal symmetries. The second term in the Lagrangian is easily proven to be invariant, and the trick to proving invariance involves counting parameters. However, there is confusion about the dimension of the matrix M and the O(M) group. The conversation also explores a new calculation method using conjugate momentums, which leads to the conclusion that the Lagrangian is invariant only if phi is equal to its transpose.
  • #1
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Homework Statement


Note: There is an undertilde under every $$\phi$$

Imagine $$ \phi ^t M \phi $$ . M is a symmetric, real and positive matrix. Prove L is invariant:

$$ \mathcal{L} = \phi ^t M \phi + \frac{1}{2} \partial_\mu \phi ^t \partial ^\mu \phi $$

Trick: Counting parameters.

Homework Equations



Internal symmetries:

$$ x \longrightarrow x' = x$$

$$ \phi ^{(\alpha)} \longrightarrow \phi '^{(\alpha)} = \sum_{\substack{\beta = 1}} \Omega_{\alpha \beta} \phi ^{(\beta)} $$

Being:

$$ \Omega \in O)M) $$
$$ \Omega \Omega ^t = \mathbb {1} $$

The Attempt at a Solution

Ok, the second term in the right hand of the Lagrangian is easy to prove is invariant (I have the proof from classes), so we can obvious it.

About the trick, there are $$ \frac{M(M-1)}{2} $$ parameters, which should be the same that dimension, right? ( Or is M parameters?) because the O(M) group has the same equation for dimension. The issue comes from the reason M matrix must have dimension 2 ( the fields have 1 dimension each one in a 4-spacetime) but this makes the equation above to gives a non-natural number of M... so I'm lost here.

Going further:

I think we need to prove: $$ \delta \mathcal {L} = 0 $$. I tried this:

We know as M is symmetric and positive:

$$ M = M^t $$ and $$ A^t M A \geq 0 $$

So:

$$ \phi^t \Omega^t \Omega M^t \Omega^t \Omega \phi = \phi '^t \Omega M \Omega^t \phi ' $$

But this is nothing...

Help?

EDIT: I just did a new calculation way using conjugate momentums in the current calculation and reached that L would be invariant if $$ \phi = - \phi^t $$ haha I forgot something this time...
 
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Thanks for the post! Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
 

1. What are internal symmetries?

Internal symmetries refer to symmetries that exist within a system or theory, rather than symmetries in the physical space or time. They involve transformations of internal properties, such as charge or spin, that leave the physical properties of the system unchanged.

2. Why is it important to prove the Lagrangian is invariant under internal symmetries?

The Lagrangian is a fundamental equation in theoretical physics that describes the dynamics of a system. Proving that it is invariant under internal symmetries is important because it shows that the theory is consistent and that the laws of physics are the same for all observers.

3. How is the Lagrangian proven to be invariant under internal symmetries?

The Lagrangian is proven to be invariant under internal symmetries by using the principle of gauge invariance. This means that the Lagrangian is unchanged when certain internal transformations are applied to the fields in the theory.

4. What is the significance of internal symmetries in particle physics?

Internal symmetries play a crucial role in the standard model of particle physics. They are used to explain the interactions between elementary particles and are essential in understanding the properties of particles, such as their mass and charge.

5. Can internal symmetries be broken?

Yes, internal symmetries can be broken, meaning that the symmetries do not hold at all energy scales. This phenomenon is known as spontaneous symmetry breaking and is a key concept in particle physics and cosmology.

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