Inverse fourier troubles: e^(-j*infty)

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The discussion revolves around the inverse Fourier transform of a piecewise function defined as H(f) = -j for f > 0 and H(f) = j for f < 0. The user struggles with the convergence of the integral and questions the validity of the limit as f approaches negative infinity, suggesting it may be non-converging. A participant recommends using decaying exponentials to aid convergence, proposing an alternative integral involving a damping factor. Ultimately, the correct result for h(t) is confirmed to be 1/(πt) as b approaches 0, but caution is advised regarding the method's limitations, particularly at f = 0.
sam.green
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Hello,

I am working through Signals and Systems Demystified, but I am at an impasse.

I would like to take the inverse Fourier transform of

<br /> H(f)=\begin{cases}<br /> -j&amp;\text{if } f &gt; 0\\<br /> j&amp;\text{if } f&lt;0\end{cases}<br />

So

<br /> h(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{0} je^{j2\pi f t}df + \int_{0}^{\infty} -je^{j2\pi ft}df <br /> = \int_{-\infty}^{0} je^{j2\pi f t}df + \int_{-\infty}^{0} je^{j2\pi f t}df <br /> = 2\int_{-\infty}^{0} je^{j2\pi f t}df <br /> = \frac{j2e^{j2\pi ft}}{j2\pi t}|_{-\infty}^{0}<br />

So

<br /> h(t) = \frac{1}{\pi t} - \lim_{f \rightarrow -\infty} \frac{e^{j2\pi ft}}{\pi t}<br />

The book says that h(t) = \frac{1}{\pi t} is the answer, but I don't understand how. Isn't \lim_{f \rightarrow -\infty} \frac{e^{j2\pi ft}}{\pi t} periodic and nonconverging?
 
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You have a constant times the sign (not sine) function: sgn(f) = 1 for f >0, and -1 for f<0.

Your problem, as you point out is convergence. Why not try multiplying your function by decaying exponentials, say exp(af) or exp(-af)?
 
Hi Dyad,

Thanks for your response. Could you please give me more details? Even Mathematica hates the integral.

By the way, I am only confident that the first part is correct.

<br /> h(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{0} je^{j2\pi f t}df + \int_{0}^{\infty} -je^{j2\pi ft}df <br /> = j(\int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{j2\pi f t}df - \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{j2\pi ft}df)<br />

-Sam
 
What if you had

<br /> <br /> x(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} je^{j2\pi f t}e^{-b|f|}df<br />

with b real and greater than zero? This is a doable calculation.

Then, after you're done, what happens when you take a certain limit involving a?
 
Thanks for the help, Dyad!

<br /> \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}-j Sgn(f)e^{j2\pi ft}e^{-b|f|}df = \\<br /> \int_{-\infty}^{0}je^{j2\pi ft}e^{bf}df - \int_{0}^{\infty}je^{j2\pi ft}e^{bf}df<br />

The e^{-b|f|} added convergence.

I ended up with

<br /> j[\frac{1}{j2\pi t+b}+\frac{1}{j2\pi t-b}]<br />

But as b approaches 0, we get

<br /> j\lim_{b \rightarrow 0}[\frac{1}{j2\pi t+b}+\frac{1}{j2\pi t-b}]=\frac{1}{\pi t}<br />
 
Ok, but just be careful; this doesn't always work.

Check the Fourier transform of the unit step function; this method doesn't give you the total answer. Problems arise at f = 0.

(To do this problem, might try writing the step function in terms of the sgn function.)
 
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