Inverse Laplace Transfrom - Taylor Series/Asymptotic Series?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on finding the inverse Laplace transform of the function W(x,s) = (1/s)*(sinh(x*s^0.5))/(sinh(s^0.5)). The solution derived is w(x,t) = x + Σ((-1)^n/n) * e^(-t*(n*pi)^2) * sin(n*pi*x), where the summation runs from n=1 to ∞. The participant also explores the Taylor series expansion of sinh to simplify W(x,s) further, leading to W(x,s) = (x/s) + Σ(x^(2n+1)/s). The conversation touches on the use of asymptotic series and the Bromwich inversion formula for inverse transforms.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of inverse Laplace transforms
  • Familiarity with Taylor series expansions
  • Knowledge of asymptotic series
  • Basic concepts of non-homogeneous partial differential equations (PDEs)
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Bromwich inversion formula for inverse Laplace transforms
  • Explore the properties and applications of asymptotic series
  • Learn about non-homogeneous PDEs and their solutions
  • Investigate the Taylor series for hyperbolic functions like sinh
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Mathematics students, physicists, and engineers dealing with differential equations, particularly those interested in inverse Laplace transforms and asymptotic analysis.

chrissimpson
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Homework Statement



W(x,s)=(1/s)*(sinh(x*s^0.5))/(sinh(s^0.5))

Find the inverse laplace transform of W(x,s), i.e. find w(x,t).

Answer:

w(x,t)= x + Ʃ ((-1)^n)/n) * e^(-t*(n*pi)^2) * sin(n*pi*x)

summing between from n=1 to ∞


Homework Equations



An asymptotic series..?!

The Attempt at a Solution



Taking the Taylor series for sinh 'simplifies' the expression to:

W(x,s)=(1/s)*(x + x^3 + x^5 +x^7 ...)

You can write this as:

W(x,s)=(x/s)+(1/s)*(x^3 + x^5 + x^7...)

W(x,s)= (x/s) + Ʃ(x^2n+1)/s

summing between n=1 and ∞

This is where I think I begin to run into trouble (unless I already have!) as I think I would now form:

w(x,t)= x + Ʃ(x^2n+1)


There is some mention in a similar question that an asymptotic series was used, but I can't work out how to make this fit in with the question!


Any help would be really appreciated!

Chris
 
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I got involved with things like this when I was looking at plasma physics, you want to use a branch cut in you inverse transform and usae the Bromwich inversion formula.
 
Cheers! I'll have a look into that. Any idea how painfully difficult this will be - I'm coming towards the (current) limit of my mathematical capabilities with this non-homogeneous PDE stuff!
 

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