SamanthaYellow
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I'm hoping that you can help me settle an argument. For a matrix \textbf{M} with elements m_{ij}, is there any sitaution where the notation (M_{ij})^{-1} could be correctly interpreted as a matrix with elements 1/m_{ij}?
Personally I interpret (M_{ij})^{-1} in the usual sense of an inverse matrix, where it would have the property \textbf M \textbf M^{-1} = I, but perhaps there are other interpretations that I don't know about. Thanks!
Personally I interpret (M_{ij})^{-1} in the usual sense of an inverse matrix, where it would have the property \textbf M \textbf M^{-1} = I, but perhaps there are other interpretations that I don't know about. Thanks!