Inverse of Automorphism is an Automorphism

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SUMMARY

The inverse of an automorphism is indeed an automorphism. Given a function f: G → G that is an automorphism, it satisfies the property f(xy) = f(x)f(y) for all x, y in G. The inverse function f^{-1} is defined such that f^{-1}(f(x)) = x for all x in G. By demonstrating that f^{-1}(f(x)f(y)) = f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)), it is confirmed that f^{-1} maintains the homomorphic property, thus proving it is also an automorphism. Additionally, the discussion emphasizes the importance of injectivity and surjectivity in this proof.

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  • Understanding of group theory concepts, specifically automorphisms.
  • Familiarity with the definitions of injective and surjective functions.
  • Basic knowledge of function composition and properties.
  • Experience with mathematical proofs and logical reasoning.
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  • Study the properties of automorphisms in group theory.
  • Learn about injective and surjective functions in detail.
  • Explore examples of automorphisms in specific groups, such as cyclic groups.
  • Review mathematical proof techniques, focusing on direct proofs and counterexamples.
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra, group theory, and anyone interested in the properties of functions within mathematical structures.

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Homework Statement


Verify that the inverse of an automorphism is an automorphism.


Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



Let f:G\to G be an automorphism. Then, f(xy)=f(x)f(y) \forall x,y\in G.
Then, we define the inverse f^{-1}:G\to G by f^{-1}(f(x)) = f(f^{-1}(x)) = x \;\;\forall x\in G. We get f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(xy))=xy=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)). Since f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)), f^{-1} is an automorphism.

I was watching http://www.extension.harvard.edu/openlearning/math222/" , and this came up as an exercise in lecture 3. I was wondering if I did this problem correctly.
 
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BrianMath said:

Homework Statement


Verify that the inverse of an automorphism is an automorphism.


Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



Let f:G\to G be an automorphism. Then, f(xy)=f(x)f(y) \forall x,y\in G.
Then, we define the inverse f^{-1}:G\to G by f^{-1}(f(x)) = f(f^{-1}(x)) = x \;\;\forall x\in G. We get f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(xy))=xy=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)). Since f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)), f^{-1} is an automorphism.

I was watching http://www.extension.harvard.edu/openlearning/math222/" , and this came up as an exercise in lecture 3. I was wondering if I did this problem correctly.

Seems good! :smile:
As an exercise however, it would be benificial if you indicated where exactly you use injectivity and surjectivity...
 
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